A check drawn by a credit union on its account at a federally insured bank would be an example of a cashier check. It is a type of check that is being issued by the bank being withdrawn from the own funds of the bank and being signed by the cashier of the bank. These are classified as guaranteed as funds since it is the bank that is held responsible for the payment of the amount. These are usually used in real estate and transactions pertaining to brokerage. This type of check has the name of the bank that issued it in an obvious location and it has improved security features like color shifting ink, security thread and watermarks.
Answer:
7 years (to the nearest year)
Explanation:
Given that;
A = amount
P= principal
t = time
r = rate
A =3P(given in the question)
Formula for compound interest;
A = P(1 + r)^t
Substituting values;
3P = P(1 + 18/100)^t
3P/P= (1.18)^t
3 = (1.18)^t
log 3 = t log 1.18
t = log 3/log 1.18
t = 0.4771/0.0719
t = 6.6 years
t = 7 years (to the nearest year)
Answer:
d. $(6,642)
Explanation:
The present value is the sum of after tax cash flows.
Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator
Cash flow in year 0 = $-81,000
Cash flow each year in year 1 to 3 = $27,000 + $2,900 = $29,900
I = 10%
Present value = $(6,642)
To find the PV using a financial calacutor:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
Objectives of HRM include ensuring availability of resources, easy access to data, on-time payroll, ensuring compliances, etc. HRM objectives are basically influenced by organisational goals and vertical. Objective of HRM is to ensure a stable work environment with data at one place and efficient operations.
Answer:
14.58%
Explanation:
WACC = weight of equity x cost of equity + weight of debt x cost of debt x (1 - tax rate) + weight of preferred equity x dividend yield
According to the capital asset price model: Expected rate of return = risk free + beta x (market rate of return - risk free rate of return)
r= 3% + 1.1 x 8 = 11.8
equity = 0.4 x 11.8% = 4.72
d = 0.4 x 5 x (1 -0.21) = 1.58
p = 0.2 x 6 = 1.2
11.8 + 1.58 + 1.2 =
