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MrMuchimi
3 years ago
8

Jasmine Company purchased a depreciable asset for $225,000. The estimated salvage value is $15,000, and the estimated useful lif

e is 8 years. The double-declining balance method will be used for depreciation. What is the depreciation expense for the second year on this asset
Business
1 answer:
ICE Princess25 [194]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$225,000 × [(1 ÷ 8) × 2] = $56,250 ($225,000 - $56,250) × [(1 ÷ 8) × 2] = $42,188 is the correct answer.

Explanation:

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If other things are held constant, an increase in the United States imports will
VMariaS [17]

Other things remaining constant, increased US imports will <u>D. Tend to cause the </u><u>dollar</u><u> to depreciate</u> because the world supply of dollars will rise.

<h3>What is the implication of increased United States imports with other factors constant?</h3>

With increased imports by the United States, and if all other factors are held constant, the supply of dollars will increase.

When the supply of dollars increases without a corresponding increase in demand, the dollar will depreciate or lose its value relatively.

Thus, if other things remain constant, increased US imports will <u>D. Tend to cause the </u><u>dollar</u><u> to depreciate</u> because the world supply of dollars will rise.

Learn more about exchange rates at brainly.com/question/2202418

7 0
3 years ago
A proposed project has fixed costs of $83,000 per year. The operating cash flow at 9,100 units is $ 102,900. Ignoring the effect
natta225 [31]

Answer:

Ignoring the effect of taxes, what is the degree of operating leverage?

  • 1.81

If units sold rise from 9,100 to 9,500, what will be the increase in operating cash flow?

  • $8,171.43 or 7.94%

what is the new degree of operating leverage?

  • 1.75

Explanation:

degree of operating leverage = (units sold x contribution margin) / [(units sold x contribution margin) - fixed costs]

(units sold x contribution margin) - fixed costs] = $102,900

units sold x contribution margin = $102,900 + $83,000 = $185,900

degree of operating leverage = $185,900 / $102,900 = 1.81

contribution margin = $185,900 / 9,100 = $20.4286

operating cash flow (at 9,500 units) = (9,500 x $20.4286) - $83,000 = $111,071.43

operating cash flow will increase by $8,171.43 or 7.94%

new degree of operating leverage = $194,071.43 / $111,071.43 = 1.75

8 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP NOW I NEED IT ASAP
eimsori [14]

Answer:

Stock: 64%

Mutual Fund: 15%

Bond: 11%

Savings Account: 10%

Explanation: Out of 100% we have 64%, 15%, 11%, and 10%. We are being asked to place these percentages to different categories based on Chris's investment to minimize the risk of his portfolio. To know what percentage to assign what category, we simply take a look at each category and determine each worth. The Stock has higher risk and higher growth, so the percentage should be the highest one which is 64%. The Mutual fund has a medium growth and a medium risk, so it should have the medium percentage which is 15%. The bond has a low growth and a low risk, which should have a low percentage but not the lowest which is 11%. Savings Account has the lowest growth and lowest risk, which should have the lowest percentage.

I am not 100% sure if it's correct, I am about 90% sure its correct. If I am wrong please make sure to comment on that.

Your Welcome,

-Expert Chicken Sama

3 0
3 years ago
Mentor Graphics Corporation, a supplier of electronic design automation systems, just announced its second quarter results. Acco
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

1. Which of the excluded items represent ongoing costs of running the business and which are one-time "special" costs?

it depends on the company and the actual transactions, e.g. equity based compensation might be a one time special cost because it occurred only once and is doubtful that it happens again. But if the company regularly rewards its top managers with this type of compensation, then it is an ongoing cost. E.g. Tesla awarded a HHHHUUUUUUGGGGGGGEEEEEEE bonus to Elon Musk (worth hundreds of millions) but it was a one time event. While many companies use equity compensation on a regular basis.

Severance and related employee "rebalancing" costs generally take place when a company fires a lot of people because it is cutting down some division or product line. Hopefully, they should never happen, and if they do, it should be only a one time event.

Fees paid to consultants and interest expenses are ongoing costs that will probably occur in the future.

Losses related to the abandonment of excess facility space and a facility fire should be one time events. It would be really bad for them to keep happening (same as severance and rebalancing costs)

8 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2017, Sandhill Inc. purchased land that had an assessed value of $322,000 at the time of purchase. A $517,000, zer
Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer:

Land amount= 367,990

Interest amount= 149,010

Explanation:

this question can be solve applying the concept of future value, as it is a zero interest or zero coupon it only, it means the bond does not pay money in the time, so

FV=PV*(1+i)^{n}

where FV is future value, PV is the present value, i is the periodic interest rate and n is the number of periods. So applying to this particular problem we have:

517,000=PV*(1+0.12)^{3}

solving we have PV=367,990

so the land value is 367,990 and the interest expenses are 517,000 - 367,990=149,010

3 0
3 years ago
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