Answer:
I agree with the owner of the company
Explanation:
The overall losses are $40,000 per month and the fixed costs are $30,000 per month.
The company should stop production because the losses are over fixed cost and this tells us that the company is not even able to recover the variable costs and because the variable costs are not at least recovered, there would be no point for the company to continue in the business as it would keep on making a loss and the logic might be wrong regarding sunk costs but the decision must be taken in favour where production should be stopped.
Answer: 130 days
Explanation:
The Cash Conversion Cycle is a measure that attempts to show how many days on average it takes a company to convert resources into cash.
It is calculated with the following formula,
= Days of Inventory Outstanding + Days of Sales Outstanding - Days of Payables Outstanding
Where,
Days of Inventory Outstanding is the amount of days it takes to convert inventory to sales
Days of Sales Outstanding is the amount of time it takes debtors to pay the company for goods they bought and,
Days of Payables Outstanding is the time it took the company to pay for the goods it bought
Plugging in the figures we have,
= 100 + 60 - 30
= 130 days
The firm's cash conversion cycle is 130 days.
Answer:
The broker should respond that the Specialist (DMM) on the NYSE flooris obligated to buy the stock at the current market.
Explanation:
Now under the NYSE rules, to make a nonstop market in the assigned stock. A customer is will always be guaranteed that the trade will be executed - on the other hand, the price at which the trade is effected is constantly subject to various market conditions.
So the best response from the broker is that the Specialist (DMM) on the NYSE floors is required to buy the stock at the current market.
Answer:
The answer is III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment.
Explanation:
Arbitrage is simultaneously buying an asset ( may be currency, securities...) in a low-priced market and sell it in a high-priced market.
As a results, the investor earns profit from price differences in the two markets without risk and net investment. It is because the two trading happens at the same time once price differences in any two markets are recognized ( arbitrage opportunities recognized) and the proceed of selling the asset is immediately used for financing/returning to the buying of the asset.
Thus, (III) is the correct answer.
