3.
You could probably look up a fancy explanation of why this is, by I just went the easy route.
1 is definitely possible.
2 is too!
(Sorry if the images are hard to see)
So the answer has got to be 3!
Hope this helps!
She paid .43¢ or .44¢for each pound
<span>We want to show that f(g(x)) = x and g(f(x)) = x.
So to do that, we need to calculate f(g(x)) and g(f(x)) explicitly.
Let's begin with f(g(x))
Now, f(g(x)) = f(4/x), by definition of g, as g(x) = 4/x
What then is f(4/x) equal to? Use the definition of f.</span>
Answer: 5 cos x
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
y = sin x is y = cos x shifted to the right π/2 units.
y = 5 sin (x + π/2) is a shift to the left π/2 units (which results in cos x) and . an amplitude of 5.
--> y = 5 cos x