Answer:
option (C) 280%
Explanation:
Number of shares of stock X purchased = 100
Purchasing cost of share = 
Selling cost of stocks = $24 per share
Brokerage paid = 2%
Now,
The total purchasing cost involved = 
+ 2% of
= 612.5 + 0.02 × 612.5
= $624.75
also,
Total income from sales of stocks
= Total selling cost of shares - brokerage paid
= $24 × 100 - 2% of Total selling cost
= $2400 - ( 0.02 × $2400 )
= $2400 - $48
= $2,352
now,
The investor's percent gain on this investment = 
= 
= 
= 276.47% ≈ 280%
Hence, the correct answer is option (C) 280%
If the quantity supplied by producers is relatively insensitive to price changes, supply is price inelastic.
Inelastic demand is demand for which the change in quantity demanded is small due to changes in price. Demand is elastic if the formula yields an absolute value greater than 1. In other words, quantity changes faster than price. If the value is less than 1, demand is inelastic.
For example, consumers are less price relatively insensitive if the product or service is unique or has few alternatives. Consumers are less price sensitive when total costs are low relative to total revenues. The total effort compared to the total cost of the final product also influences price sensitivity.
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<em>Your question is incomplete. please read below to find the full content.</em>
If the quantity supplied by producers is relatively insensitive to price changes, supply is ______. Multiple choice question.
price inelastic.
quantity demanded.
relative price increase.
change in price.
Answer:
d. shifts in market psychology and successive waves of irrational exuberance.
Explanation:
Bubble in respect to financial market means an unexpected and non-explainable reason. This although the economists believes arises because of the emotional attachment and effects on an asset. As for example: when an asset is made using the specific raw material which is discovered to be precious in the terms it is ancient then, automatically the price of the asset increases in the market.
Thus, this is nothing but a market psychology that is basically an effect of emotional concerns of individual mindset, which is irrational.
This theory is explain by Keynesian the economists.
Answer:
$176 million
Explanation:
The calculation of net cash inflows from financing activities is shown below:-
Net cash inflows from financing activities
Proceeds from issuance of preferred stock $254 million
Proceeds from issuance of subordinated bonds $292 million
Less: Cash dividends paid on preferred stock (86) million
Less: Cash paid to retire note ($112) million
Less: Common shares acquired for treasury (172) million
Net cash inflows from financing activities $176 million
The positive sign represents the cash inflow and the negative sign represents the cash outflow
Answer:
C) earning an economic profit.
Explanation:
Since the market is in long run equilibrium, the demand = the supply of haircuts, and an increase in the quantity demanded will increase the equilibrium price in the short run, generating economic profits at least until more suppliers enter the market and long run equilibrium is established again. Economic profit doesn't exist when the market is at long run equilibrium.
*Economic profit = accounting profit - implicit costs. So economic profit being $0 in the long run doesn't mean the businesses are not making an accounting profit.
