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Mamont248 [21]
2 years ago
8

Jamison is self-employed and he works out of an office in his home. Jamison itemizes his deductions, and the sum of his itemized

deduction for non-home business taxes and the real property taxes allocated to business use of the home is less than $10,000. After allocating the home-related expenses between the business office and the rest of the home, which of the following statements regarding the sequence of deductibility of the expenses allocated to the home office business use is correct?
a. Depreciation expense, other expenses, property taxes and interest expense.
b. Other expenses, depreciation expense, property taxes and interest expense.
c. Interest expense and property taxes, other expenses, depreciation expense.
d. Other expenses, property taxes and interest expense, depreciation expense.
Business
1 answer:
Arte-miy333 [17]2 years ago
6 0

Answer: c. Interest expense and property taxes, other expenses, depreciation expense.

Explanation:

In terms of deductibility, interest expenses such as mortgages take precedence along with taxes on property.

After this comes other expenses starting first with direct expenses incurred in providing Jamison's services then there will be other expenses such as insurance, periodic repairs and admin expenses.

At the bottom of the hierarchy is depreciation expense which is the last expense that can be deducted

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Sindrei [870]
Any contract Fay enters into is "voidable if the other party does not realize that Fay is incompetent".

Business contract law holds that people that have been proclaimed mentally uncouth in a courtroom may discover an agreement they go into announced void, voidable, or enforceable. The guardian is the main individual who can go into an agreement for the incompetent individual's behalf.
3 0
3 years ago
A process produces two types of products A and B. Product A is done in batches of 1000 units. It involves a setup time of 2 hour
aleksley [76]

Answer:

Explanation:

1. Only product A is produced

40 hours= 40*60*60 = 144,000 seconds

Run time 75 seconds

Setup time 2 hours

Batches= 1000 units

Run time to produce one batch of A = 1000*75sec = 75,000 seconds

Setup time = 2 hours = 7200 seconds

Remaining seconds = 144,000 - (75,000+7200) = 61,800 seconds

Product A manufactured in 61,800 sec = 61,800/75 = 824

Total Product A manufactured are = 1824 units

2. Only product B is produced

40 hours= 40*60*60 = 144,000 seconds

Run time 45 seconds  

Setup time= 1 hour

Batches= 500 units

To produce one batch of A = 500*45sec = 22,500 seconds

Setup time = 6 hours = 6*7200 seconds= 43,200sec

Remaining seconds = 144,000-(22,500+43,200) = 78,300 seconds

Product A manufactured in 78300 sec = 1740

Total Product A manufactured are = 500+1740= 2240 units

3. A and B are produced in a mix of 25% A and 75% B?

Considering loss of 3 hours setup time, 37 hours is left to produce

A is manufactured for = 25% of 37 hours = 9.25 hours = 33300 hours

B is manufactured for = 75% of 37 hours = 27.75 hours = 99900 hours

Production of A = 33300/75 sec= 444 units

Production of B = 99900/45 sec= 2220 units

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is true of normal shortages? They do not include theft and shrinkage. These goods are no longer available
never [62]

Answer:

<h2>The correct answer here would be the 1st option given in the answer choices or options or They do not include theft and shrinkage.</h2>

Explanation:

  • From a business standpoint, normal shortages basically indicate comparatively lower inventory availability of goods and services based on their consumer demand or respective sales orders by consumers or buyers.
  • Normal shortage implies that the amount or units goods and services available to the company or firm is not sufficient to fulfill the required consumer or buyer demand for those commodities or services.However,while calculating or computing normal shortage, any unwanted thefts and shrinkage or inadvertent damages of the concerned commodities or goods are not usually considered.
7 0
3 years ago
Doyle Company issued $226,000 of 10-year, 5 percent bonds on January 1, Year 1. The bonds were issued at face value. Interest is
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

Dr cash                $226,000

Cr Bonds payable                    $226,000

31st December year 1

Dr cash                       $74,000

Cr Lease revenue                     $74,000

Dr interest expense               $11,300

Cr Cash                                                $11,300

31st December year 2

Dr cash                       $74,000

Cr Lease revenue                     $74,000

Dr interest expense               $11,300

Cr Cash                                                $11,300

Explanation:

Upon the receipt of $226,000 from bond issue,cash acount would be debited with $226,000 and bonds payable account would be credited with the same amount.

When land purchased,the land account is debited with $226,000 and cash is credited with $226,000.

The receipt of $74,000 from lease rental means that cash is debited and the lease revenue is credited.

The coupon interest on the bonds=$226,000*5%=$11,300

The coupon interest is debited to interest expense and credited to cash in each of the two years.

find attached t accounts.

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7 0
3 years ago
According to mainstream business cycle​ theory, _______. A. the money wage rate is sticky and consequently if aggregate demand g
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

The correct answer is option A.

Explanation:

According to the mainstream business cycle theory, the potential GDP grows at a steady rate while the aggregate demand grows at a fluctuating rate. The money wage rate is considered to be sticky.  

So when aggregate demand increases more than the potential GDP, the supply is not able to increase as much as demand. This creates an inflationary gap in the economy.  

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