Answer and Explanation:
a. Here it is reasonable to presume that the treasury bond generates high returns when there is a recession.
b. The calculation of the expected rate of return and the standard deviation for each investment is shown below:
For stocks
= (Expected return of the boom × weightage of boom) + (expected return of the normal economy × weightage of normal economy) + (expected return of the recession × weightage of recession)
= (29% × 0.30) + (18% × 0.50) + (-4% × 0.20)
= 8.7% + 9% - 0.80%
= 16.9%
For bonds
= (Expected return of the boom × weightage of boom) + (expected return of the normal economy × weightage of normal economy) + (expected return of the recession × weightage of recession)
= (6% × 0.30) + (9% × 0.50) + (16% × 0.20)
= 1.8% + 4.5% + 3.2%
= 9.5%
Now the standard deviation calculation is to be shown in the excel spreadsheet
For the stock it is 11.48%
And, for the bond it is 3.5%
c. The investment that should be prefer could be computed by determine the coefficient of variation which is shown below:
Formula i.e. used is
= Standard deviation ÷ expected return
For stock, it is
= 16.9% ÷ 11.48%
= 1.47
And, for bonds it is
= 9.5% ÷ 3.5%
= 2.71
Since for the bonds the coefficient of variation is greater so the same is to be considered
Therefore the bond should be prefer
In economics, the Fisher equation is used to determine the
relationship of the nominal interest rate and the real interest rate. This
equation takes into account the effect of inflation. Mathematically this is
expressed as:
Real rate = 
-1
The values given are:
Nominal rate= 10% =
0.1
Inflation=5%=0.05
Substituting known
values and by calculation:
<span>Real rate=0.0476 =
4.76%</span>
The pre-tax cost of debt is yield to maturity of the debt.
The yield to maturity of debt is calculated as -
Yield to maturity = ]Coupon payment + ( Face value - Current price) / Number of years)] / [ ( Face value + Current price) / 2]
Here,
Coupon payment = $ 29.50 (semi-annual, thus 5.9% / 2 * 1000)
Face value = $ 1,000
Price = $ 1,000 * 108% = $ 1,080
Number of years = 12 ( semi-annual, thus 6 years * 2)
Pre-tax cost of debt = [ 29.50 + (1,000 - 1080/12)] / [ (1000+1080)/2 ]
Pre-tax cost of debt = 2.196 %
Annual pre-tax cost of debt = = 2.20 % * 2 = 4.40%
After tax cost of debt = ( 1 - tax rate ) * Annual pre-tax cost of debt
After tax cost of debt = ( 1 - 35%) * 4.40 %
After tax cost of debt = 2.86 %
Bob and mary are financing $180,500 for a new home. their lender will approve an interest rate of 5% if bob and mary pay two discount points at closing. Cost them is $3,610.
A discount point is 1% of the loan amount. Bob and Mary are paying two points (or 2% of $180,500), which is $3,610.
What is discount points?
- Discount points are a shape of paid ahead of time intrigued that contract borrowers can buy to lower the intrigued rate on their consequent month to month payments.
- Discount points are a one-time expense, paid up front either when a contract is to begin with orchestrated or amid a refinance.
- Each markdown point for the most part costs 1% of the overall credit and brings down the loan’s intrigued rate by one-eighth to one-quarter of a percent.
- Points don’t continuously got to be paid out of the buyer’s stash; they can some of the time be rolled into the advance adjust or paid by the vender.
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If a monopsonist offers a wage of $6, he finds that 1,200 people are willing to work for him. This means that the: a marginal factor cost is $6.
<h3>Monopsonist</h3>
If a monopsonist offers a wage of $6, he finds that 1.200 people are willing to work for him. This means that the O a. total wage cost is $1,200. b. marginal factor cost is $6. O c. total wage cost is $7.200. o d. $6 wage is too high. o e marginal factor cost is $200.
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