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JulijaS [17]
3 years ago
11

URGENT!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
kipiarov [429]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

math

Step-by-step explanation:

use math

Hitman42 [59]3 years ago
3 0
Number 1= 3/4
Number 2=3/7
Number 3=1/2
Number 4=4/9
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What is the area of the triangle?<br> 4<br> :10<br> 2<br> units
lozanna [386]

Answer:

Your answer is 20

Step-by-step explanation:

as the formula 1/2*4*10=20.

hope it help you if yes then please make me the brainiest.

Thank you

parshv

7 0
3 years ago
If $2,500 is invested at 12% annual interest, which is compounded continuously, what is the account balance after 3 years, assum
Lelechka [254]

Answer: 3,583.32

Step-by-step explanation:

Use money chimp calculator

4 0
3 years ago
The Center for Medicare and Medical Services reported that there were 295,000 appeals for hospitalization and other Part A Medic
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

(a) 0.00605

(b) 0.0403

(c) 0.9536

(d) 0.98809

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that 40% of first-round appeals were successful (The Wall Street Journal, October 22, 2012) and suppose ten first-round appeals have just been received by a Medicare appeals office.

This situation can be represented through Binomial distribution as;

P(X=r)= \binom{n}{r}p^{r}(1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,....

where,  n = number of trials (samples) taken = 10

            r = number of success

            p = probability of success which in our question is % of first-round

                   appeals that were successful, i.e.; 40%

So, here X ~ Binom(n=10,p=0.40)

(a) Probability that none of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 0)

     P(X = 0) = \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0}

                   = 1*0.6^{10} = 0.00605

(b) Probability that exactly one of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 1)

     P(X = 1) = \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                  = 10*0.4^{1} *0.6^{10-1} = 0.0403

(c) Probability that at least two of the appeals will be successful = P(X>=2)

    P(X >= 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1)

                     = 1 - \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0} - \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                     = 1 - 0.00605 - 0.0403 = 0.9536

(d) Probability that more than half of the appeals will be successful =             P(X > 0.5)

  For this probability we will convert our distribution into normal such that;

   X ~ N(\mu = n*p=4,\sigma^{2}= n*p*q = 2.4)

  and standard normal z has distribution as;

      Z = \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} ~ N(0,1)

  P(X > 0.5) = P( \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} > \frac{0.5-4}{\sqrt{2.4} } ) = P(Z > -2.26) = P(Z < 2.26) = 0.98809

3 0
3 years ago
A woman who has recovered from a serious illness begins a diet regimen designed to get her back to a healthy weight. She current
WINSTONCH [101]

Answer:

a.) w = 103 * 1.08^t

b.) 3.5weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

If Her current weight is 103 pounds and she hopes to multiply her her weight each week by 1.08, then

her weight after 1 week = 103 * 1.08 = 103 * 1.08¹

Her weight after 2 weeks = [weight of week 1] * 1.08 = [103* 1.08] * 1.08 = 103 * 1.08²

Weight after 3 weeks= [weight of week 2] * 1.08 = [103 * 1.08 * 1.08] * 1.08 = 103 * 1.08³

Hence weight (W) after t weeks = 103 * 1.08^t

b.) If W = 135, Then

103 * 1.08^t = 135

1.08^t = 135/103

1.08^t = 1.31

Taking log of both sides,

log 1.08^t = log 1.31

t log 1.08 = log 1.32

t = log 1.32/log 1.08

t = 3.5 weeks.

Hence, it will take her 3½ weeks to get to 135pounds weight.

7 0
3 years ago
find the smallest number by which 368 be multiplied so that the product is a perfect square find the square root of the new squa
Vikki [24]

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

368×0=0

Now,

√0=0

0 is the perfect square, it is smallest number and it is your answer.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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