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Zanzabum
3 years ago
6

Could someone explain this?

Mathematics
1 answer:
77julia77 [94]3 years ago
8 0

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  2

Step-by-step explanation:

The curve's highest value is -1.

The curve's lowest value is -5.

For a symmetrical wave like this*, the amplitude is half the difference between the highest and lowest values:

  1/2(-1 -(-5)) = 2

The amplitude is 2.

_____

* There is no general agreement as to how to compute the amplitude when the wave is asymmetrical. Some authors use the same formula. Some consider the amplitude to be the maximum deviation from average. Some define only a "peak-to-peak" amplitude in those cases. The meaning of "amplitude" in those cases depends on the context in which the question is asked.

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vaieri [72.5K]
If we know that 30% of the time is used after 9 minutes we can write this mathematically as:

0.30x = 9
By solving for x we can determine the total time allowed to play games and so:

x =  \frac{9}{0.30}  = 30
The total time allowed to play games is 30 minutes. Since 9 minutes have lapsed 30-9=21 minutes left to play.
5 0
2 years ago
The point A (-5, -2) is reflected over the line y = -1, and then is reflected over the line x = 3. What are the coordinates of A
dmitriy555 [2]
When A is reflected over y=-1, -1+(-1-(-2))=0, it lands on (-5, 0), when it is then reflected over x=3, 3+(3-(-5))=11, it lands on (11,0) 
If you can't visualize it, draw a graph.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the probability of rolling a four then a three
spayn [35]

Answer:

\frac{1}{36}

Step-by-step explanation:

Total possibilities when we a roll a die at a time are 6

given we should have four for first time and then three

let us assume we rolled the dice we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 4 is

PROBABILITY=\frac{\textrm{FAVOURABLE CHANCES}}{\textrm{TOTAL CHANCES}}

Favourable chances=1

Total chances=6

Probability=\frac{1}{6}

the prabability to get 4 in first roll is \frac{1}{6}.

let us assume we rolled the dice for second time again we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 3 is

Favourable chances=1

total chances=6

probability=\frac{1}{6}

the probability to get 3 in second roll irrespective of first one is \frac{1}{6}

the probability to get 4 in first time and then 3 is

The probability to occur both events at a time is multiplication of individual probabilities

So,

probablility to get 4 in first roll=\frac{1}{6}

probability to get 3 in second roll=\frac{1}{6}

probability to occur both at a same time is =\frac{1}{6} \times\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{36}

6 0
2 years ago
I need help with number 5
chubhunter [2.5K]

Look at intersecting points of line on x- and y-axis.

The points would be: (8,0) & (0,4)

formula of slope = (y2-y1) / (x2-x1)

 (4-0)/(0-8) = -4/8 = -1/2.

3 0
3 years ago
Question 2
Rainbow [258]
Answer D is correct
3 0
3 years ago
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