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fiasKO [112]
3 years ago
15

Pleas help me with this it's due before 2:00 today

Mathematics
1 answer:
goblinko [34]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

20 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

this shape contains a 4 x 4 square and 8 triangles

.

area if the square = 16

.

area of the triangles= (1 x 1 / 2) x 8 = 4

.

total, 16 + 4 =20

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A class of 33 students elected a class treasurer. There were 11 votes for Candidate A and 15 votes for Candidate B. The remainin
vovangra [49]
To start out, notice that you want the percent of voters that chose candidate A, not the percent of the class that chose candidate A.

Your fraction should be "number that chose candidate A" out of "number of voters," which is the same thing as saying:  
"number that chose candidate A" divided by "number of voters"

1) The numerator of the fraction should be the number of votes for candidate A, which is 11.

2) The denominator of the fraction should be the number of voters. You're told that "t<span>here were 11 votes for Candidate A and 15 votes for Candidate B," so there are:
</span>11 + 15 \: total \: votes

3) Finally put parts 1 and 2 together into a fraction and multiply by 100 to get your percent. That is your final answer:
\frac{11}{11+15}  \times 100

----

Answer: Top right choice, \frac{11}{11+15} \times 100
<span>

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5 0
3 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
A graph titled Health Club Rates has number of family members on the x-axis and Monthly cost (dollars) on the y-axis. For 2 fami
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

$42 per person

Step-by-step explanation:

I just did it and got it right.

6 0
3 years ago
100 points and brainliest for correct answer!
dusya [7]
City C (42 and 66 are the two modes they are the most frequent numbers both appearing 3 times)
4 0
2 years ago
Solve r=s/17−t for t
mamaluj [8]
T=-r+s/17

Explanation:
6 0
3 years ago
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