<h2>Greetings!</h2><h3>To find the first probability, you first find the amount of $10 bills and the total amount. Then you can put this into a fraction:</h3>
<h3>Now, do the same but for the total amount, be sure to remove 1 because you have not returned the first one picked. Now find the amount of $1 bills too:</h3>
<h3>Now you have two fractions of two consecutive events, now just simply multiply the two together:</h3>
x = 
<h3>Now as both numbers are factors of 6, both can be divided by 6 to get a simplified probability:</h3>
÷ 6 = 
<h3>So P($10 then $1) =
</h3>
<h2>Hope this helps!</h2>
Answer:
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Because
Answer: p - 0.2p
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the following :
Original Price of tennis racket = p
Mark down or discount on original price = 20% of original price = (20/100) × p = 0.2p
Amount after discount = Amount paid by Natasha
Amount after discount = Original price - Discount
Amount after discount = p - 0.2p
Amount paid by Natasha = p - 0.2p
Answer:
x = -25/13
Step-by-step explanation:
Subtract 41 from 16 and divide the difference by 13
