James will need to decrease the marginal revenue to reduce his output.
<h3>What happens when marginal revenue equals marginal cost?</h3>
This is known as an economic equilibrium and there is no economic profit in such equilibrium.
To incur profit now, he will have need to decrease the marginal revenue to reduce his output
Therefore, the Option B is corrrect
Missing options <em>"will increase profits, will decrease marginal revenue, can charge a higher price."</em>
<em />
Read more about marginal revenue
<em>brainly.com/question/10822075</em>
Answer:
a. Value.
Explanation:
The opportunity cost of a choice is the value of the opportunities lost.
In Economics, Opportunity cost also known as the alternative forgone, can be defined as the value, profit or benefits given up by an individual or organization in order to choose or acquire something deemed significant at the time.
Simply stated, it is the cost of not enjoying the benefits, profits or value associated with the alternative forgone or best alternative choice available.
Hence, the opportunity cost of a choice is the benefits that could be derived in from another choice using the same amount of resources.
<em>For instance, if you decide to invest resources such as money in a food business (restaurant), your opportunity cost would be the profits you could have earned if you had invest the same amount of resources in a salon business or any other business as the case may be.</em>
The finance lease is the journal entry can be created by debiting the lease asset account and crediting the lease liability account. The amount of lease asset or lease liability recorded in this journal entry is the fair value of total lease payments.
Because short-term leases are not capitalized, no depreciation expense on the right of use asset or finance cost on the lease liability is recognized. Payments on short-term leases are expensed by the less on a straight-line or other systematic basis.
Debit the appropriate fixed asset account and credit the capital lease liability and account with the amount.
To learn more about asset here
brainly.com/question/14826727
#SPJ4
Answer:
Beta is 0.85
Explanation:
The value of Beta can de derived from the CAPM formula of expected return
expected return=risk-free rate+Beta*market risk premium
expected return is 10.2%
risk-free rate is 4.10%
market risk premium is 7.2%
Beta is unknown
10.20%=4.10%+Beta*7.20%
10.20%-4.10%=Beta*7.20%
6.10%
==Beta*7.20%
Beta=6.10%
/7.20%
Beta= 0.85
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": Mutual funds are actively managed by a professional while index funds are not.
Explanation:
Both mutual funds and index funds are pools of assets that allow investors to diversify their portfolios. The difference between them relies on the quality of management those funds provide. <em>Mutual funds are assessed by qualified professionals while index funds are not. That is the main reason why mutual funds charge higher fees than index funds.</em>