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polet [3.4K]
2 years ago
5

The plantwide overhead rate method is most appropriate for companies which have

Business
1 answer:
Kobotan [32]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation: The plantwide overhead rate is a single overhead rate that a company uses to allocate all of its manufacturing overhead costs to products or cost objects.

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The totals from the first payroll of the year are shown below. Total Earnings FICA OASDI FICA HI FIT W/H State Tax Union Dues Ne
alexgriva [62]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entry to deposit the FICA and FIT taxes is as follows:

FICA OASDI $2,244.10  

FICA HI $524.83  

FIT W/H $6,515.00  

         To Cash  $9,283.93

(Being to record deposit the FICA and FIT taxes)

Here the FICA OASDI FICA HI FIT W/H is debited and the cash is credited

So the same is to be considered

5 0
2 years ago
The following are a series of unrelated situations. Answer the questions relating to each of the five independent situations as
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

Determine its bad debt expense for 2020. Bad debt expense for 20  

Cr Bad Debt Expense $ 524 - Credit, which means a profit in the income statement.

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts Balance

$ 4,380  - $524 = $ 3,856

Explanation:

December 31, 2020  

Dr Accounts receivable $ 48,200

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 4,380

Net Credit Sales $ 1,253,200

Buffalo Company estimates its bad debt expense to be 8% of gross accounts receivable.

Determine its bad debt expense for 2020. Bad debt expense for 20  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 524

Cr Bad Debt Expense $ 524

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts Balance

$ 4,380  - $524 = $ 3,856

The allowance for uncollectible Accounts must reflect as balance the value estimated as bad debts, which is 8% of gross accounts receivable. $48,200*0,08 = $3,856

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % estimated of accounts receivables as CREDIT, if the company had balances that differ from that value then it must be adjusted to the new estimated value.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

8 0
3 years ago
Brief Exercise 24-2 Hsung Company accumulates the following data concerning a proposed capital investment: cash cost $216,758, n
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

Net Present Value = $12,400

Since net present value is positive, the investment shall be made.

Explanation:

Capital outlay = $216,758

Cash inflow every year = $43,900

Period = 10 Years

Net Present Value = Present value of cash inflow - Present value of cash outflow

Present Value of Cash Inflow = Cash inflow each year X Present value factor of cash inflows for years

= $43,900 X 5.22

= $229,158

Present value of cash outflow = $216,758

Net Present Value = $229,158 - $216,758 = $12,400

Since net present value is positive, the investment shall be made.

Net Present Value measures the net effect of an investment discounted at current rate of interest, i.e. cost of capital.

Final Answer

Net Present Value = $12,400

Since net present value is positive, the investment shall be made.

3 0
4 years ago
Consider the following two mutually exclusive projects: Year Cash Flow (A) Cash Flow (B) 0 –$218,917 –$16,419 1 25,700 5,985 2 5
cluponka [151]

Answer:

I will choose Project B

Payback period of Project A is 4.2 years

Explanation:

IRR shows the percentage rate at which the net present value of the cash flows are zero. The more IRR rate of the project the more beneficial it is.

IRR

Project A = 31%

Project B = 38%

In this Question the IRR of Project B is higher so, it will be more beneficial and I will select it based on IRR ignoring all other factors.

Payback period of Project A is 4.2 years means 4 years, 2 months and 12 days.

5 0
3 years ago
Zhang Industries is preparing a cash budget for June. The company has $29,500 cash at the beginning of June and anticipates $98,
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

Amount to be borrowed  $18,040

Explanation:

The computation of the amount that should be borrowed is given below:

Opening cash balance $29,500

Add Cash Receipts $98,000

Less Cash Disbursements -$122,540

Balance before adjustment $4,960

Desired ending cash balance $23,000

Amount to be borrowed  $18,040

7 0
3 years ago
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