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lesantik [10]
3 years ago
10

A triangle has two sides that measure 5 cm and 7 cm. Which of the following CANNOT be the measure of the third side? A 3 cm B 5

cm C 7 cm D 12cm
Mathematics
1 answer:
Jobisdone [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Saying the number of |`s is the number side and |<|||>|| then for a triangle i can say |+||>|||

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What are these closer to 1/2,0,or 1:<br> 5/6<br> 7/13<br> 3/5
den301095 [7]
\frac{5}{6} is closest to 1

\frac{7}{13} is closest to \frac{1}{2}

\frac{3}{5} is closest to \frac{1}{2}
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Angad is 10 years older than Alex. Mark is 11 years younger than Alex. If the total of their ages is 68, how old is the youngest
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47

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which polygon has 11 sides​
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Hendecagon

Step-by-step explanation:

a hendecagon has 11 sides

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Capital Value Suppose income from an investment starts (at time 0) at $6000 a year and increases linearly and continuously at a
nikdorinn [45]

The capital value$6507.63

Step-by-step explanation:

When an amount is compounded continuously interest it means the principal is continuously earning interest and the interest keeps earning on the interest earned. The formula to apply is;

A=Pe^{rt}

where P is the starting amount, r is the nominal annual interest rate, t is length of time the interest is applied, and e=2.71828

Given that, A=$6000, e=2.71828, r=0.05 and t=1

A=6000*2.71828^{0.05}

A=6307.63

Interest earned= 6307.63-6000 = $307.63

Where the investment increases linearly and at a constant rate of $200 a per , the linear model will be;

A=6000+200t where t is length of time the interest is applied, and A is the amount after t period of time

In this case t=1

A=6000+200*1

A=6000+200 =6200

Interest earned is= $6200-$6000=$200

Capital value = $6000+$307.63+$200 =$6507.63

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Interest compounded continuously:brainly.com/question/13009340

Keywords : capital value, investment, increases linearly, continuously rate

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7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that 20% of the adult women in the United States dye or highlight their hair. We would like to know the probability that
Rasek [7]

Answer:

71.08% probability that pˆ takes a value between 0.17 and 0.23.

Step-by-step explanation:

We use the binomial approxiation to the normal to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

E(X) = np

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that \mu = E(X), \sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}.

In this problem, we have that:

p = 0.2, n = 200. So

\mu = E(X) = np = 200*0.2 = 40

\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{200*0.2*0.8} = 5.66

In other words, find probability that pˆ takes a value between 0.17 and 0.23.

This probability is the pvalue of Z when X = 200*0.23 = 46 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 200*0.17 = 34. So

X = 46

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{46 - 40}{5.66}

Z = 1.06

Z = 1.06 has a pvalue of 0.8554

X = 34

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{34 - 40}{5.66}

Z = -1.06

Z = -1.06 has a pvalue of 0.1446

0.8554 - 0.1446 = 0.7108

71.08% probability that pˆ takes a value between 0.17 and 0.23.

6 0
3 years ago
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