There is no solution to the equation sec x = 0. True or False

Pencils cost $0.30 each and pads of paper cost $1.25 each. You have $3.30 to spend and you need 6 pencils. How many pads of pape

natta225 [31]

Answer:

6 x 0,30 = $1,80

$3,30 - $1,80 = $1,50

$1,50 - $1,25 = $0,25 (not enough money)

you can buy 1 pad of paper

hope it helps.

Also, I think that Brainly is an awesome app, but there's an app which is doing great work for me in maths, named Gauthmath. I will suggest it. Video concepts and answers from real tutors.

3 0

3 years ago

Find the volume of a cone with radius 18 and height 6

Artemon [7]

Answer:

2035.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Vole of a cone is: V=πr^2h/3

18 squared is 324

V= π(324)(6/3)

That's

V= π(324)(2)

2035.75203953

8 0

3 years ago

Samantha is painting her house. There are a total of 2,261 square feet of surface are to be painted. If she can paint 75 square

Viefleur [7K]

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

the equation would be C because

A would end up with a negative amount

B is more than she originally has to paint and

D has the wrong coefficient for t.

8 0

4 years ago

Hope Amelia Solo, the American soccer goalkeeper, World Cup champion and two-time Olympic gold medalist, allows goals at a rate

Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

3.70% probability she allows more than one goal

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given time interval.

X~Pois(0.3)

This means that $\mu = 0.3$

In her next match, what is the probability she allows more than one goal?

Either she allows at most one goal, or she allows more than one goal. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

$P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1$

We want $P(X > 1)$ . So

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)$

In which

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.3}*(0.3)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.7408$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-0.3}*(0.3)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.2222$

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.7408 + 0.2222 = 0.9630$

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.9630 = 0.0370$

3.70% probability she allows more than one goal

3 0

3 years ago

The mass of a patient decreased by 20 percent every month. If his mass before the decrease was 90kg, how many kilograms had he l

Vladimir [108]

Answer: 46.08 kg

Answer:

$90 \div 100 \times 20 = 18$

$90 - 18 = 72$

$72 \div 100 \times 20 = 14.4$

$72 - 14.4 = 57.6$

$57.6 \div 100 \times 20 = 11.52$

$57.6 - 11.52 = 46.08$

Step-by-step explanation:

Theres probably a better solution but brute force is sometimes good enough

3 0

3 years ago