1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
marissa [1.9K]
3 years ago
12

I need a little help here !

Mathematics
1 answer:
Eduardwww [97]3 years ago
4 0
It is a knowledge check
On aleks
You might be interested in
Which number is composed of exactly 8
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

B is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

because it said 8 thousands so you know its not D and it says 7 tens so you know its not C and for 9 sense the hundredths has (ths) you know it's not A so the answer is B.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELP!! ILL MARK BRAINLYEST!!!
Liula [17]

Answer:

The answer is 144 m 2, hope this helps!!!:)

3 0
3 years ago
A Geiger counter counts the number of alpha particles from radioactive material. Over a long period of time, an average of 14 pa
UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

0.2081 = 20.81% probability that at least one particle arrives in a particular one second period.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Over a long period of time, an average of 14 particles per minute occurs. Assume the arrival of particles at the counter follows a Poisson distribution. Find the probability that at least one particle arrives in a particular one second period.

Each minute has 60 seconds, so \mu = \frac{14}{60} = 0.2333

Either no particle arrives, or at least one does. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). So

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.2333}*(0.2333)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.7919

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.7919 = 0.2081

0.2081 = 20.81% probability that at least one particle arrives in a particular one second period.

8 0
3 years ago
I-ready testing need help ASAP!
Leto [7]

Answer:

-11/12

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Which of the following fractions is equivalent to -84/-90 in the least common terms?
abruzzese [7]
Answer: 14/15

This is because to get to 14/15 you must divide by 6 but when getting to 42/45 you must divide 2. Therefore 14/15 is your answer because the problem went to the most reduced fraction.
5 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • The equation below describes a parabola. If a is positive, which way does the parabola open?
    11·2 answers
  • A club of twenty students wants to pick a three person subcommittee. How many ways can this be done?
    11·1 answer
  • F divided by -2/3 = -1/3
    9·1 answer
  • 7000(1+.065/12)12*15
    14·1 answer
  • How do you graph this equations <br> y=2x+2<br> y=-2x-6
    12·1 answer
  • Andrew made 4 different kinds of cookies. He made 22 chocolate chip, 33 peanut butter, 15 chocolate, and 20 sugar. What percent
    13·2 answers
  • What is four plus eight
    8·2 answers
  • Tony bought 48 roses for $24. How much do 24 roses cost?
    10·2 answers
  • What is ³√64? Please help!
    14·2 answers
  • What is a perimeter?​
    15·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!