<span>During
the introduction stage of the product life cycle, promotional
expenditures are made to stimulate consumer desire for an entire product
class rather than for a specific brand. The consumer desire that is
stimulated is referred to as primary demand.
</span>Primary demand is the desire for a product class rather than for a specific brand.During the growth stage
of the product life cycle, promotional expenditures are made to
stimulate consumer desire for a specific brand due to increased
competition. The consumer desire that is stimulated is referred to as selective demand.<span>Selective demand is the preference for a specific brand.</span>
Missing information:
<u>Balance sheet
</u>
Current assets $3,300 Current liabilities $2,200
Fixed assets $10,200 Long-term debt $3,750
Equity $7,550
Total $13,500 Total $13,500
<u>Income statement</u>
Sales $6,600
Costs $5,250
Taxable income $1,350
Taxes (34%) $459
Net income $891
Answer:
$1,350.60
Explanation:
external financing needed = [(assets / sales) x ($ Δ sales)] - [(current liabilities / sales) x ($ Δ sales)] - [profit margin x forecasted sales x (1 - dividend payout ratio)]
EFN = [($13,500 / $6,600) x $1,188] - [($2,200 / $6,600) x $1,188] - [(0.135 x $7,788 x (1 - 0.35)]
EFN = $2,430 - $396 - $683.40 = $1,350.60
External financing refers to the amount of money that a business must either borrow or raise capital in order to keep operating as they have been doing so.
Answer:
The DDM tells us that share price = D*(1+G)/R-G
Dividend = 4.00
G= 0.05
R= 0.15
Price = 4*(1.05)/0.15-0.05
Price= $42
Explanation:
We use the dividend discount method to estimate the current price. We use the growth rate and required return to figure out the current price by using the DDM formula.
Answer:
The current price is $34.40
The price be in three years is $38.70
The price in 15 years is $61.95
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Gordon model which is shown below:
= Next year dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)
where,
Current year dividend
For one year
= $2.15 × (1 + 4%
)
= $2.15 × 1.04
= $2.236
The other items rate would remain the same
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= 2.236 ÷ (10.5% - 4%)
= $34.40
The price is three years would be
= $34.40 × (1.04) ^ 3 years
= $34.40 × 1.124864
= $38.70
The price is 15th years would be
= $34.40 × (1.04) ^ 15 years
= $34.40 × 1.8009435055
= $61.95
Answer:
E. None of the above
Explanation:
First we need to calculate the holding period return
Holding period return is the rate of return which an assets earns during the period in which it holds the assets.
Holding Period Return = (Selling Price - Initial Price + Dividend ) / Initial Price
Holding Period Return = ($24 - $21 + $2.04 ) / $21 = 0.24 = 24%
Now we need to calculate the expected return on the stock using CAPM formula as follow
Expected return = Risk free rate + Beta ( Market Risk Premium )
Expected return = rf + beta ( E(rm) )
Placing values in the formula
Expected return = 8% + 1.2 ( 16% )
Expected return = 27.2%
Abnormal return is the difference of Holding period return and expected return
Abnormal return = 27.2% - 24% = 3.2%
