Answer:
Share price : $ 56.23
Explanation:
CAPM
risk free = 0.05
market rate = 0.11
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.06
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.64
Ke 0.14840
Now, we solve for the present value of the future dividends:
year dividend* present value**
1 2.91 2.53
2 3.31 2.51
3 3.78 2.49
4 4.31 2.48
4 80.38 46.22
TOTAL 56.23
*Dividends will be calculate as the previous year dividends tiems the grow rate
during the first four year is 14%
then, we calcualte the present value of all the future dividends growing at 9% using the dividend grow model:
(4.31 x 1.09) / (0.1484 - 0.09) = 80.38
Then we discount eahc using the present value of a lump sum:
We discount using the CAPM COst of Capital of 14.84%
last we add them all to get the share price: $ 56.23
The unadjusted cost of goods sold is $395,000
<h3>What is cost of goods sold?</h3>
Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) is what measure the direct cost incurred in the production of any goods or services.
The unadjusted cost of goods is computed as:
= Cost of goods manufactured - ( Ending finished goods -Beginning finished goods inventory )
= $410,000 - ( $125,000 - $110,000)
= $410,000 - $15,000
= $395,000
Hence, the unadjusted cost of goods sold is $395,000
Learn more about cost of goods sold here: brainly.com/question/18648409
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Answer:
to prerequisite of economic growth...........
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Yes the npv should always follow as it represents
Answer:
1. a. 4.081%
2. c. $23,536.36
Explanation:
1. Periodic rate=(4.4%/4) = 1.1%
EAR=(1+APR/m)^m-1
where m=compounding periods
= (1+0.044/4)^4-1
= 1.011^4 - 1
= 1.04473133864 - 1
= 0.04473133864
= 4.47%
EAR=(1+APR/m)^m-1
where m=compounding periods
=(1+0.04/365)^365-1
= (1+0.00010958904)^365 - 1
= 1.00010958904^365 - 1
= 1.04080849272 - 1
= 0.04080849272
= 4.081%
2. A=P(1+r/365)^365*n
where A=future value, P=present value, r=rate of interest, n=time period.
= 22000*(1+9%/365)^(9/12*365)
= $23,536.36
