Who death was sadder itachi or minato or Jiraiya

Singapore Airlines is rated one of the best airlines in the world and often requires ticket agents to serve as baggage handlers.

kherson [118]

Ticket agents often deal with luggage and so cross-training makes them more efficient.

Singapore Airways has been named this year's 'global's exceptional Airline' in Skytrax's Global Airline Awards. SIA also took the pinnacle spot in the 'world's exceptional First class', 'satisfactory Airline in Asia' and 'exceptional First elegance Airline Seat' categories in the 2018 ratings.

Accomplishing service Excellence price-successfully. SIA has two major assets planes and those and it manages them in order that its carrier is better than its opponents' and its fees are lower. in contrast to different airlines, SIA guarantees that its fleet is usually young.

Singapore has usually been very progressive in relation to patron enjoyment. They have been the first airline to have satellite communications for passengers, and on-demand seatback entertainment screens for economy suites on board their A380.

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3 0

2 years ago

5. Cruzville economists have been using 2013 as their base year to calculate inflation. a) What is the CPI during the base year

4vir4ik [10]

Based on the base year used by Cruzville economists to calculate inflation, the following at the CPIs:

2013 = 100
2014 = 112
2015 = 130

<h3>What is the CPI over the years?</h3>

As 2013 is the base year, the CPI will be 100 because all base years are 100 for CPI purposes.

The CPI in 2014 is:

= 112

This is due to an inflation rate of 12%.

An inflation rate of 16.1% is the reason why the CPI in 2015 is 130.

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5 0

2 years ago

Beehive Corporation incurred actual overhead of $201,600 and applied overhead of $210,000. Beehive has supplied the following da

mr_godi [17]

Answer:

$713,605

Explanation:

If Actual Overheads > Applied Overhead we say, Overheads have been underapplied and the amount of underapplied overheads is added to the balance in stock and cost of sales.

and

If Applied Overheads > Actual Overhead we say, Overheads have been overapplied and the amount of overapplied overheads is deducted from the balance in stock and cost of sales.

Where :

Actual overhead is $201,600 and Applied overhead is $210,000, the amount of overapplied overhead is $8,400 ($210,000 - $201,600).

The overapplied overheads is allocated to ending balances of Finished Goods, Work In Process and Cost of Sales only and except Direct Materials

Total % Allocation

Work-in-process $28,000 3.41 $286

Finished goods $70,000 8.55 $718

Cost of goods $721,000 88.03 $7,395

Total $819,000 100.00 $8,400

Therefore,

Cost of goods sold = $721,000 - $7,395 = $713,605

8 0

3 years ago

Flapjack Corporation had 7,800 actual direct labor hours at an actual rate of $12.44 per hour. Original production had been budg

likoan [24]

Answer:

Direct labor efficiency variance= $9,360 unfavorable

It is unfavorable because it took longer to produce 975 units than the standard time estimated.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard direct labor hour per unit= 7.2 hours

Standard rate= $13

Actual units= 975

Actual hours= 7,800

Actual rate= $12.44

<u>The direct labor time variance is also known as the direct labor efficiency variance. It calculates the effect on costs of the time required to produce the actual amount of units.</u>

We need to use the following formula:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

Standard quantity= 975 units*7.20= 7,020 hours

Direct labor efficiency variance= (7,020 - 7,800)*12= $9,360 unfavorable

It is unfavorable because it took longer to produce 975 units than the standard time estimated.

4 0

3 years ago

Baxter Inc. has a target capital structure of 30% debt, 15% preferred stock, and 55% common equity. The company's after-tax cost

VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

B) WACC 12.00000%

Explanation:

$WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+P+D}) + K_p(\frac{P}{E+P+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+P+D})$

Ke 0.15 (we are asked for the WACC if retained earnings are used, so we ould assing RE rate

Equity weight 0.55

Kp 0.11

Preferred Weight 0.2

Kd(1-t) (after-tax debt) 0.07

Debt Weight 0.3

$WACC = 0.15(0.55) + 0.11(0.15) + 0.07(0.3)$

WACC 12.00000%

4 0

3 years ago