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kiruha [24]
2 years ago
14

Explain why the triangles are similar. Then find the value of x. ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
KiRa [710]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

x=12

Step-by-step explanation:

the 2 triangles are proportionately identical.

the larger one is 1/3 larger, so x would be 9 plus 1/3 of 9- 12

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Hellp meee please I’m about to fail this subject!
elixir [45]

Answer:

So first you have to do 12-2 since it's in parenthesis. It is 10. 5+4 is 9, and 9 times 10 is 90. 3 squared is 9, then you divide 90 by 9. The answer is 10.

4 0
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Simplify . (1/c + 1/h)/(1/(c ^ 2) - 1/(r ^ 2))
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

\frac{\left(h+c\right)cr^2}{h\left(r^2-c^2\right)}

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{\frac{1}{c}+\frac{1}{h}}{\frac{1}{c^2}-\frac{1}{r^2}}

Combine \frac{1}{c} + \frac{1}{h}

\frac{\frac{h+c}{ch}}{\frac{1}{c^2}-\frac{1}{r^2}}

Combine the bottom, too.

=\frac{\frac{h+c}{ch}}{\frac{r^2-c^2}{c^2r^2}}

Apply the fraction rule

=\frac{\left(h+c\right)c^2r^2}{ch\left(r^2-c^2\right)}

Cancel

=\frac{\left(h+c\right)cr^2}{h\left(r^2-c^2\right)}

Therefore, \frac{\left(\frac{1}{c}+\frac{1}{h}\right)}{\left(\frac{1}{\left(c^2\right)}-\frac{1}{\left(r^2\right)}\right)}:\quad \frac{\left(h+c\right)cr^2}{h\left(r^2-c^2\right)}

5 0
3 years ago
How much of the sphere do you have to paint red so that no matter ow you put a cube in it, some corner touches red?
Triss [41]

Explanation:

To achive that you have to piant a ring in red, which will have its big diameter equal to the sphere diameter and its small diameter equal to the cube diagonal.

The diagonal of the cube can be calculated using Pithagoras:

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Proof. Give: <1 and <2 are complementary, angle 1 is congruent to angle 3 and angle 2 is congruent to angle 4. Prove: angl
dangina [55]
<1 and <2 are complementary : given
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<1 congruent <3 : given
<2 congruent <4 : given
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5 0
3 years ago
Each letter of the word "supercalifragilisticexpialidocious" is placed into a bag and drawn at 3 times, replacing the letter aft
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

P(X ≥ 1) = 0.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

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Using Binomial distribution to determine the probability; we have:

P(X = x)  = ^nC_x  \ \beta^x   \  (1 - \beta)^{n-x}

where;

x = 0,1,2,...n    and    0  <  β   <   1

and x represents the  number of successes.

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P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X< 1)

P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X =0)

P(X \ge 1) =  1 - \bigg [ {^3C__0} (0.21)^0 (1-0.21)^{3-0} \bigg]

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P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.50

P(X ≥ 1) = 0.50

4 0
3 years ago
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