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Ne4ueva [31]
3 years ago
11

Suppose that monopolistically competitive firms in a certain market are earning positive profits. In the transition from this in

itial situation to a long-run equilibrium, Group of answer choices the number of firms in the market decreases. each existing firm experiences a decrease in demand for its product. each existing firm experiences a rightward shift of its marginal revenue curve. each existing firm experiences an upward shift in its average total cost curve.
Business
1 answer:
tamaranim1 [39]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is the last option: Each existing firm experiences an upward shift in its average total cost curve.

Explanation:

To begin with, in the microeconomics theory the "monopolisticaly competitive" market refers to that one whose main characteristics are shared with the perfect competititve market but with the big difference of the differentiation of the product and for that reason every company in it fights for the publicity and inversions in that matter are a big deal. Therefore that at short run everybody wins, so new companies entry the market and when that happens the demand goes down for everybody due to the more supply now available and with that, the companies have to put more money into publicity in order to atract the consumers and that will affect that average total cost curve that will be represented with an upward shift in the graphic.  

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Due to ____, market forces should realign the relationship between the interest rate differential of two currencies and the forw
xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

Covered Interest Arbitrage

Explanation:

The Covered Interest Arbitrage is a term that refers to arbitrage trading approach in which a stockholder take the chance to gain advantage from the disparity in interest rate between two nations.

The trading strategy helps in its verifiability, quantifiability, consistency, and objectivity

It is designed to profit the investor from the differences in interest rates between two countries, when buying and selling foreign currencies.

When a market is small or there's a high level of competition, there's a possibility that the earnings on covered interest rate arbitrage won't yield much.

6 0
3 years ago
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Both lloyd and harry are claiming patent protection for the same invention that each independently created. the rights to protec
Nonamiya [84]
In the scenario in which both Lloyd and Harry are claiming patent protection for the same invention that each independently created, the rights to protection will be awarded to <span>the one who actually completed the invention first.</span>
This follows from the American standard which states that the "first-to-invent" is awarded the patent.

7 0
3 years ago
Kelchner Corporation has provided the following contribution format income statement. Assume that the following information is w
Juliette [100K]

Answer:

The contribution margin ratio is closest to 40%

Explanation:

The contribution margin ratio calculates the percentage of sales that will contribute to cover fixed costs and earn a profit. The contribution margin is the difference between the selling price per unit and the variable cost per unit of a product. The contribution margin ratio is the contribution margin per unit represented as a percentage of selling price per unit or total contribution margin represented as a percentage of total sales revenue.

CM Ratio = Total contribution margin / Total Sales revenue

CM ratio = 72000 / 180000  =  0.4 or 40%

7 0
3 years ago
The following information relates to a company’s accounts receivable:
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

1. the year-end balance in allowance for uncollectible accounts is $6,680.

2. The bad debt for the year is -$2,320.

Explanation:

1. To calculate the year-end balance in allowance for uncollectible accounts:

First we calculate the Account Receivable which is calculated as thus:

 ==> Account Receivable (ending balance) = accounts receivable (beginning balance) + Credit sales  - cash collected - written off accounts receivable.

==> 300,000 + 1,500,000 - 1,450,000 - 16,000 = $334,000

Therefore the account receivable = $334,000.

Estimated percentage of bad debts = 2%

allowance of uncollectible accounts = Account Receivable x Estimated percentage.

==> $334,000 x 2% = $6,680

Hence, the year-end balance in allowance for uncollectible accounts is $6,680.

2. To calculate the bad debt expense for the year, we use:

allowance of uncollectible acountsl (ending balance) -  [Allowance of uncollectible account (opening balance) - accounts receivables written off)

==> $6,680 - ($25,000 - $16,000)

     = 6,680 - 9,000

     = -$2,320

The bad debt for the year is -$2,320. This is incurred when customers pay for an invoice when it has been written off.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 2, 2005, Ames Corp. signed an eight-year lease for office space. Ames has the option to renew the lease for an additi
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Answer:

B) $15,000

Explanation:

Even though the leasehold improvements have an estimated useful life of 10 years, Ames should amortize them in 8 years since they are not certain about renewing the lease contract.

amortization per year = $120,000 / 8 = $15,000

Since Ames has only leased the office for one year, then the accumulated amortization should be $15,000

6 0
3 years ago
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