The answer is 78.99%, So rounded up to 79%
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Answer:
option 3 is right.........
![S_n=\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1k](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S_n%3D%5Cdisplaystyle%5Csum_%7Bk%3D1%7D%5En%5Cfrac1k)
You have
![\ln e^{S_n}=S_n\ln e=S_n](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cln%20e%5E%7BS_n%7D%3DS_n%5Cln%20e%3DS_n)
so showing that
![e^{S_n}>n+1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=e%5E%7BS_n%7D%3En%2B1)
amounts to the same as showing that
![S_n>\ln(n+1)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S_n%3E%5Cln%28n%2B1%29)
.
As
![n\to\infty](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=n%5Cto%5Cinfty)
, you have
![\ln(n+1)\to\infty](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cln%28n%2B1%29%5Cto%5Cinfty)
. By comparison, then, it follows that
![S_n\to\infty](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S_n%5Cto%5Cinfty)
at a faster rate, which means
![S_\infty](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S_%5Cinfty)
must diverge.
Answer: <u>1 & 5</u> are both corresponding angles
Step-by-step explanation: because they are both on the top and on the same side that's what makes them corresponding angles
<h2><u>
Love U Daddy!</u></h2>
Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
It's right