15% of 40 = 6 so I’m guessing it would be 6
Answer:
a = (p - 3b)/10
Step-by-step explanation:
Isolate the variable, a. Note the equal sign, what you do to one side, you do to the other. Do the opposite of PEMDAS (Parenthesis, Exponents (& roots), Multiplication, Division, Addition, Subtraction).
p = 10a + 3b
First, subtract 3b from both sides.
p (-3b) = 10a + 3b (-3b)
p - 3b = 10a
Next, isolate the a. Divide 10 from both sides.
(p - 3b)/10 = (10a)/10
(p - 3b)/10 = a
a = (p - 3b)/10 is your answer.
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Answer:
12
Step-by-step explanation:
side 1: 4
side 2: 6
6*4*(1/2)
12
Answer:
0.00183
Step-by-step explanation:
The two companies produce different products and the chance to go bankrupt will be different based on the product made. So, the probability of the company A and B to go bankrupt is independent.
To find the answer of this question, we just need to multiply the probability to go bankrupt of each company. The calculation will be:
P(A=bankrupt) * P(B=bankrupt)= 3% * 6.1% =0.183%= 0.00183
Answer:
4
Step-by-step explanation:
The area is 16, and you know that it's 2 sides u need to multiply
The perimeter is 16, and you know that you need to add up all the sides
So....
A = b * h
A = 4 * 4
A = 16 CORRECT
And....
P = S + S + S + S ( s = sides)
P = 4 + 4 + 4 + 4
P = 16 CORRECT
Hope this helped!
Have a supercalifragilisticexpialidocious day!
