Answer:
$9,400
Explanation:
We know,
predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = 
Given,
Total overhead cost = $690,900
Total machine hours = 1,470
Putting the values into the formula, we can get
predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = 
predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = $470
When we use a separate job, the overhead cost will be = predetermined overhead rate × total hours used by the job.
The amount of overhead should be applied to Job 65A if that job uses 20 machine hours during January = 20 hours × $470 = $9,400
Answer:
Explained below.
Explanation:
A nurse educator questions to a student, to list the 5 main categories of complementary and alternative medicine CAM, developed by the NCCAM. The statements which were made by the nursing student indicates a need for further teaching regarding CAM categories are as follows:
* Massage therapy as well as magnetic therapy are a focus of CAM.
* Massage therapy, as well as magnetic therapy, are therapies within particular categories of CAM.
Answer:
Do = $2.00
D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40
D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88
D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456
D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472
D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664
PHASE 1
V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5
V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5
V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 + $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742
V1 = $11.3824
PHASE 2
V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n
V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5
V2 = $5.0762/0.1435
V2 = $35.3742
Po = V1 + V2
Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742
Po = $46.76
Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.
In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.
Answer:
change in demand; shift of the demand curve.
Explanation:
We know that income elasticity of demand derives by considering the percentage change in quantity demanded and percentage change in income
In mathematically,
Income elasticity of demand = (percentage change in quantity demanded) ÷ (percentage change in income)
By considering the above information, the change in income preferences is due to change in demand plus it also shift of the demand curve
