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RSB [31]
2 years ago
13

What is 3:00 AM in Spanish?

Mathematics
2 answers:
suter [353]2 years ago
7 0

Answer: tres am

Step-by-step explanation:

Solnce55 [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

tres de la mañana

Step-by-step explanation:

im mexican

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4c = d for c<br> Solve for indicated variable.
motikmotik

Answer:

c=1/4d

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Han wrote a proof that triangle BCD is congruent to triangle DAB. Han's proof is incomplete. Which step is missing some informat
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

The answer is below

Step-by-step explanation:

From the image, we can see that DC is parallel to AB.

Step 1:

Alternate interior angles are angles formed at the inner corners of intersection on opposite sides of transversal when two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal.

Since Line AB is parallel to line DC and cut by transversal DB. So angles CDB and ABD are alternate interior angles and must be congruent.

Step 2:

DB ≅ BD (reflexive property of congruence)

Step 3:

∠A = ∠C = 90° (right angles, given). But to prove that both triangles are congruent, the correct step 3 is:

Since, ∠A = ∠C = 90° and angles CDB and ABD are congruent. This means that the third angles in the both triangles are also congruent. Hence, angle ADB and CBD are must be congruent.

Step 4:

BD = DB, angles CDB and ABD  are congruent, angle ADB and CBD are congruent.

Therefore,  By the Angle-Side-Angle Triangle Congruence Theorem, triangle BCD is congruent to triangle DAB .

4 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!
miskamm [114]

Answer:  Choice A.   4 times

========================================================

Explanation:

We'll be using this formula

m = \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}

to compute the average rate of change (AROC) from x = a to x = b. Note how this is effectively the slope formula because y = f(x).

To start things off, we'll compute the AROC from x = 1 to x = 2.

m = \frac{g(b)-g(a)}{b-a}\\\\m = \frac{g(2)-g(1)}{2-1}\\\\m = \frac{5(2)^2-5(2)^1}{2-1}\\\\m = \frac{10}{1}\\\\m = 10\\\\

Do the same for the AROC from x = 3 to x = 4.

m = \frac{g(b)-g(a)}{b-a}\\\\m = \frac{g(4)-g(3)}{4-3}\\\\m = \frac{5(2)^4-5(2)^3}{4-3}\\\\m = \frac{40}{1}\\\\m = 40\\\\

The jump from m = 10 to m = 40 is "times 4", which is why choice A is the final answer.

7 0
2 years ago
Please answer this correctly
julsineya [31]

Answer:

the answers are 783 and 786

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Look at screen shot worth 15 points
soldi70 [24.7K]

Answer:

it would be by 23. that's what I think

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2 years ago
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