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wariber [46]
3 years ago
13

Why has the world’s economies become interdependent?

History
2 answers:
Ne4ueva [31]3 years ago
5 0
Spatial and temporal components, such as international trade, global levels of political representation, global communication, the increased speed of transactions, travel, political change, resource depletion, social mobilization and impacts of increased cultural exchange has undoubtedly increased the level of global
iragen [17]3 years ago
5 0
The foremost global economic powers of the time raised rates against each other to fix their own economies, leading to a collapse in international trade. When organizations, including the World Bank and the IMF, increased the level of international trade and worldwide investment, it therefore increased global economic interdependence.
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What was important to European countries during the age of exploitation
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

Spices from Asia, new knowledge, wealth, fame and adventure

Explanation:

Europeans were interested in spices from Asia, but Muslims and Italians controlled the trade routes from Europe to Asia. Nations wanted riches and new lands for themselves.

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Explain how Japan was opened to outsiders in the 1850s
aev [14]

Answer:

Explanation:

His mission was to complete an agreement with the Japanese Government for the protection of shipwrecked or stranded Americans and to open one or more ports for supplies and refueling. ... As a result, Perry's treaty provided an opening that would allow future American contact and trade with Japan.

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Why did Muslim scholars translate scholarly works into different languages?
inessss [21]

Answer:

d they wanted to share their culture

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELP ME OUT ASAP!!!!!
ZanzabumX [31]

One thing you have to be clear about is which war. I'm taking it to be WWI.

There was a cash crunch after WWI. France was not any kind of a problem with the United States. It's not B.

I better get to the point. It has to do with the fact that the United States couldn't sell an abundance of manufactured goods. A has to do with that, but it wasn't exactly a decline in the manufacturing industry. It was that she couldn't sell what she had in inventory.

Inflation didn't become a problem in a post WWI environment. In fact, the problem was deflation and unemployment in the 30s, but that is a decade away from this question.

This is one of those questions that a guess is as good as an answer. Britain didn't import which is the same thing as a trade imbalance. I would pick E but I think that D is very possible. They are both worded the wrong way.There was a drop off in American Exports. And Farm prices cratered. Does that mean that Americans were buying more British goods. It is not D if America couldn't sell anything to Britain.

That makes E true. I'd pick E, but there's lots of reasons to pick almost anything else except B.

6 0
3 years ago
9. Promoting trade between farmers and manufacturers<br> Hamilton or Jefferson?
laiz [17]

Answer:

I am almost positive it is hamilton.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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