All categories

3 years ago

– 3(4^2) step by step pls

Mathematics

1 answer:

xxMikexx [17]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The answer is -48

Step-by-step explanation:

First step is to follow PEMDAS

So we start solving whatever is in the ( )

4^2 is in the ( ) 4^2 = 16 then we multiply

-3 * 16 which is -48

You might be interested in

Convert 10300000in scientific notation

insens350 [35]

Step-by-step explanation:

10300000 = 1,03 * 10⁷

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The ordered pair R(-2,7) is translated 5 units to the right and down 2 units. which of the following descirbes the translation u

grigory [225]

Choice D is the correct answer.
For translations, moving to the right 5 units means you add 5 to x, and moving down 2 units means you subtract 2 from y. D is the only choice that accurately represents this.

Hope this helps

3 0

2 years ago

What is 180% as a decimal

bazaltina [42]

Answer:

1.80 this is the correct answer

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASE HELP IM TIMED

seropon [69]

Answer:

first one = 15x+30y-220

second one = 2.4x-4.4

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

A company with n employees publishes an internal calendar, where each day lists the employees having a birthday that day. What i

lutik1710 [3]

Answer: $1-(\frac{364}{365})^n$

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability formula :-

$P(x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^x$ , where P(x) is the probability of getting success in x trials, n is the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial.

We assume that the total number of days in a particular year are 365.

Then , the probability for each employee to have birthday on a certain day :

$p=\dfrac{1}{365}$

Given : The number of employee in the company = n

Then, the probability there is at least one day in a year when nobody has a birthday is given by :-

$P(x\geq1)=1-P(x$

Hence, the probability there is at least one day in a year when nobody has a birthday = $1-(\frac{364}{365})^n$

5 0

3 years ago