Answer:
it is (6)(10)
Step-by-step explanation:
I just took the edgenuity test so I know
We need to convert this equation to slope-intercept form first.
We can do that by solving for y.
x - 5y = 15
<em><u>Add 5y to both sides.</u></em>
x = 5y + 15
<em><u>Subtract 15 from both sides.</u></em>
x - 15 = 5y
<em><u>Divide both sides by 5.</u></em>
y = 1/5x - 3
We now know the slope is 1/5.
The slope of the line perpendicular to the line with a slope of 1/5 is -5.
The slope of a perpendicular line is the negative reciprocal of the original slope.
Using a graphing calculator, we know the y-intercept of the line that is perpendicular to the original line must have a y-intercept of -6 to run through the points (-2, 5).
The equation of the new line is y = -5x - 6.
<h3>
Answer: 83.85%</h3>
This value is approximate.
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Explanation:
Let's compute the z score for x = 40
z = (x-mu)/sigma
z = (40-47)/7
z = -1
We're exactly one standard deviation below the mean.
Repeat these steps for x = 68
z = (x-mu)/sigma
z = (68-47)/7
z = 3
This score is exactly three standard deviations above the mean.
Now refer to the Empirical Rule chart below. We'll add up the percentages that are between z = -1 and z = 3. This consists of the two pink regions (each 34%), the right blue region (13.5%) and the right green region (2.35%). These percentages are approximate.
34+34+13.5+2.35 = 83.85
<u>Roughly 83.85%</u> of the one-mile roadways have between 40 and 68 potholes.
Answer:
The correct answer B) The volumes are equal.
Step-by-step explanation:
The area of a disk of revolution at any x about the x- axis is πy² where y=2x. If we integrate this area on the given range of values of x from x=0 to x=1 , we will get the volume of revolution about the x-axis, which here equals,

which when evaluated gives 4pi/3.
Now we have to calculate the volume of revolution about the y-axis. For that we have to first see by drawing the diagram that the area of the CD like disk centered about the y-axis for any y, as we rotate the triangular area given in the question would be pi - pi*x². if we integrate this area over the range of value of y that is from y=0 to y=2 , we will obtain the volume of revolution about the y-axis, which is given by,

If we just evaluate the integral as usual we will get 4pi/3 again(In the second step i have just replaced x with y/2 as given by the equation of the line), which is the same answer we got for the volume of revolution about the x-axis. Which means that the answer B) is correct.