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skad [1K]
3 years ago
14

Shaw Company sells goods that cost $300,000 to Ricard Company for $410,000 on January 2, 2020. The sales price includes an insta

llation fee, which has a standalone selling price of $40,000. The standalone selling price of the goods is $370,000. The installation is considered a separate performance obligation and is expected to take 6 months to complete. (a) Prepare the journal entries (if any) to record the sale on January 2, 2020.
Business
1 answer:
Mrrafil [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

January 2, 2020

Dr Accounts receivable 410,000

    Cr Sales revenue 370,000

    Cr Unearned revenue 40,000

Dr Cost of goods sold 300,000

    Cr Merchandise inventory 300,000

Accrual accounting states that revenues must be recognized during the periods that they actually occur (i.e. the earning process is completed). Since the installation process lasts 6 months, the unearned revenue will be recognized as the process is being completed.

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Costco is an example of _______ warehouse. Group of answer choices Hub and spoke system Assortment Spot stock Break bulk
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

Hub and spoke system

Explanation:

Costco Wholesale Corporation is a company that operates in the warehouse industry. They store merchandise at a lower cost than other wholesale or retail sources.

They aim to reduce warehousing cost for small and medium scale businesses.

In the hub and spoke system each component of the warehousing system are independent and contribute to the central warehousing activity.

It is also called the master feeder structure.

Freight traffic is moved to the central hub through spokes that are arranged around the centre like a wheel.

This system reduces the travel time and therefore is more efficient with lower cost

4 0
3 years ago
Bonita Corporation had net sales of $2,409,200 and interest revenue of $38,100 during 2020. Expenses for 2020 were cost of goods
____ [38]

Answer:

net income: $ 451,010

EPS:             $           6.32 per share

Explanation:

net sales                   2,409,200

cost of good sold     (1,464,600)

gross profit:                  944,600

operating expenses:

selling expenses         (284,000)

operating income         660,600

non operating:

interest revenue              38,100

interest expense           (54,400)

non operating expense (16,300)

earning before taxes:     644,300

tax expense:  30%          193,260

net income                      451,010

shares outstanding          71,390

Earning per share: 451,010/71,390 = 6,31755

4 0
3 years ago
The price of a stock today is $100. next year, the stock price will be either $120 or $90. the risk-free rate is 3% per year. wh
fredd [130]
A. The put option price is $4.00
5 0
3 years ago
A firm produces and sells two products, Plus and Max. The following information is available relating to setup costs (a part of
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

Apportioned set-up cost

Plus =$21,600

Max=$43,200

Explanation:

Activity-based costing is a form of absorption costing where overheads are charged to product using cost drivers.  

<em>Under this method, overheads are first analyzed and categorized by the activities responsible for them and then charged to product based on the amount of benefits enjoyed using cost drivers. </em>

<em>The cost driver in this scenario is the number of set-ups</em>

Activity rate per driver is calculated as:  

Activity overhead for the period / Total cost drivers for the period

So, we can apply this formula to the scenario above:

Set-up overhead= $64,800

Total set-ups for the period = 20 + 40 = 60

Overhead cost per set-up = $64,800/60=1,080

Set-up cost allocation:

Plus - 20 × 1,080=$21,600

Max- 40 × 1,080=$43,200

Apportioned set-up cost

Plus =$21,600

Max-=$43,200

3 0
3 years ago
The IRR evaluation method assumes that cash flows from the project are reinvested at the same rate equal to the IRR. However, in
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

MIRR -16.50%

They should reject the project is it destroys capital it do not meet to pay up the cost of the investment.

A typical firm’s IRR will be greater than its MIR

If the project yields higher than the cost of capital the IRR will be higher than the MIRR as reinvest the cashflow at the project yield rather than copany's cost of capital, thus it overstate the return.

Explanation:

MIRR = \sqrt{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1

WACC (cost of capital, reinvestment and financiation rate) = 7%

<em>Cash inflow:</em>

Inflow \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Year 1 275000    336,886.825

Year 3 450000     481500

Year 4 450000    450000

Total                        1,268,386.825

<em>Cash outflow:</em>

F=                           -2,500,000

Year 2 -125000 -    109, 179.841

\frac{125,000}{(1 + 0.07)^{2} } = PV  

Total                    2,609,179.841

Now we can solve for MIRR:

MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1

MIRR = \sqrt[4]{\frac{1,268,386.82}{2,609,179.84}} -1

MIRR - 16.49991% = -16.50%

6 0
3 years ago
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