Answer: Corporate, preferred, foreign.
Step-by-step explanation:
"Corporate bond-has the lowest default risk because of its good legacy in business. Just try to imagine 150 years of service. They have prove it. preferred stock- because of high number of prospects and the fact the its under development
foreign government bond-has the highest default risk considering that the government is unstable"
Answer: 8784
Step-by-step explanation: Just multiply 366 and 24
Answer: 0.75
Step-by-step explanation:
By the remainder theorem the remainder when dividing p(x) by x-a is p(a).
Dividing by x+1 means we want p(-1).
p(-1) = (-1)³ - 2(-1)² -4(-1) - 1 = -1 - 2 + 4 - 1 = 0
Answer: 0
They go in evenly so x+1 is a factor of p(x).
Answer:
Let X be the number.
Twice the number would be 2x
The difference between the two, would be subtraction, so you would subtract 4 from 2x
The equation becomes 2x-4 = 16
Now solve for x:
2x-4 = 16
Add 4 to each side:
2x = 20
Divide both sides by 2:
x = 20/2
x = 10
The number is 10.
