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3 years ago

The difference between accounting exposure and translation exposure is that:______

Business

1 answer:

insens350 [35]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

B.)accounting exposure and translation exposure are the same thing.

Explanation:

Accounting Exposure can also be regarded as also translation exposure, it take care of all accounting-derived changes that could arise in owner's equity. This Translation exposure do take place when a firm is a dominant of part of her equity or liabilities in a foreign currency.

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Suppose that output (Y ) in an economy is given by the following aggregate production function: Yt = Kt + Nt where Kt is capital

shusha [124]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Yt = Kt + Nt

Taking output per worker, we divide by Nt

Yt/Nt = Kt/Nt + 1

yt = kt + 1

where yt is output per worker and kt is capital per worker.

a) With population being constant, savings rate s and depreciation rate δ.

ΔKt = It - δKt

dividing by Nt, we get

ΔKt/Nt = It/Nt - δKt/Nt ..... [1]

for kt = Kt/Nt, taking derivative

d(kt)/dt = d(Kt/Nt)/dt ... since Nt is a constant, we have

d(kt)/dt = d(Kt/Nt)/dt = (dKt/dt)/Nt = ΔKt/Nt = It/Nt - δKt/Nt = it - δkt

thus, Capital accumulation Δkt = i – δkt

In steady state, Δkt = 0

That is I – δkt = 0

S = I means that I = s.yt

Thus, s.yt – δkt = 0

Then kt* = s/δ(yt) = s(kt+1)/(δ )

kt*= skt/(δ) + s/(δ)

kt* - skt*/(δ) = s/(δ)

kt*(1- s/(δ) = s/(δ)

kt*((δ - s)/(δ) = s/(δ)

kt*(δ-s)) = s

kt* = s/(δ -s)

capital per worker is given by kt*

b) with population growth rate of n,

d(kt)/dt = d(Kt/Nt)/dt =

= $\frac{\frac{dKt}{dt}Nt - \frac{dNt}{dt}Kt}{N^{2}t}$

= $\frac{dKt/dt}{Nt} - \frac{dNt/dt}{Nt}.\frac{Kt}{Nt}$

= ΔKt/Nt - n.kt

because (dNt/dt)/Nt = growth rate of population = n and Kt/Nt = kt (capital per worker)

so, d(kt)/dt = ΔKt/Nt - n.kt

Δkt = ΔKt/Nt - n.kt = It/Nt - δKt/Nt - n.kt ......(from [1])

Δkt = it - δkt - n.kt

at steady state Δkt = it - δkt - n.kt = 0

s.yt - (δ + n)kt = 0........... since it = s.yt

kt* = s.yt/(δ + n) =s(kt+1)/(δ + n)

kt*= skt/(δ + n) + s/(δ + n)

kt* - skt*/(δ + n) = s/(δ + n)

kt*(1- s/(δ + n)) = s/(δ + n)

kt*((δ + n - s)/(δ + n)) = s/(δ + n)

kt*(δ + n -s)) = s

kt* = s/(δ + n -s)

.... is the steady state level of capital per worker with population growth rate of n.

3. a) capital per worker. in steady state Δkt = 0 therefore, growth rate of kt is zero

b) output per worker, yt = kt + 1

g(yt) = g(kt) = 0

since capital per worker is not growing, output per worker also does not grow.

c)capital.

kt* = s/(δ + n -s)

Kt*/Nt = s/(δ + n -s)

Kt* = sNt/(δ + n -s)

taking derivative with respect to t.

d(Kt*)/dt = s/(δ + n -s). dNt/dt

(dNt/dt)/N =n (population growth rate)

so dNt/dt = n.Nt

d(Kt*)/dt = s/(δ + n -s).n.Nt

dividing by Kt*

(d(Kt*)/dt)/Kt* = s/(δ + n -s).n.Nt/Kt* = sn/(δ + n -s). (Nt/Kt)

$\frac{sn}{\delta +n-s}.\frac{Nt}{Kt}$

using K/N = k

$\frac{s}{\delta +n-s}.\frac{n}{kt}$

plugging the value of kt*

$\frac{sn}{\delta +n-s}.\frac{(\delta + n -s)}{s}$

thus, Capital K grows at rate n

d) Yt = Kt + Nt

dYt/dt = dKt/dt + dNt/dt = s/(δ + n -s).n.Nt + n.Nt

using d(Kt*)/dt = s/(δ + n -s).n.Nt from previous part and that (dNt/dt)/N =n

dYt/dt = n.Nt(s/(δ + n -s) + 1) = n.Nt(s+ δ + n -s)/(δ + n -s) = n.Nt((δ + n)/(δ + n -s)

dYt/dt = n.Nt((δ + n)/(δ + n -s)

dividing by Yt

g(Yt) = n.(δ + n)/(δ + n -s).Nt/Yt

since Yt/Nt = yt

g(Yt) = n.(δ + n)/(δ + n -s) (1/yt)

at kt* = s/(δ + n -s), yt* = kt* + 1

so yt* = s/(δ + n -s) + 1 = (s + δ + n -s)/(δ + n -s) = (δ + n)/(δ + n -s)

thus, g(Yt) = n.(δ + n)/(δ + n -s) (1/yt) = n.(δ + n)/(δ + n -s) ((δ + n -s)/(δ + n)) = n

therefore, in steady state Yt grows at rate n.

5 0

3 years ago

Cost leadership is a sustainable source of competitive advantage only if no barriers exist that prevent competitors from achievi

krek1111 [17]

Answer: false

Explanation:

The statement is false because cost leadership is not really sustainable as it's cost effective due to the maintenance charge required to keep them in a great care despite the low operational cost being runned by the organization

6 0

3 years ago

Oslo Company prepared the following contribution format income statement based on a sales volume of 1,000 units (the relevant ra

Paul [167]

Answer:

1. $4.5

2. 45%

3. 55%

4. $4.50

5. $1,800

6. $3,150

7. $1,750

8. 500 units

9.$5,000

10. 2,300 units

11. $5,000

12. 2

13. 1.5%

Explanation:

1. Contribution margin per unit = Unit sales price - Variable cost per unit

• $10 - $5.5 = $4.5

2. Contribution margin ratio = (sales - variable expense) / Sales

• ($10,000 - $5,500) / $10,000

• $4,500/$10,000

•45%

3.Variable expense ratio = variable cost per unit / Sales per unit

•$5.5/$10 = 55%

4. Net operating income @1,000 - Net operating income @1,001

•@1,000 units

Sales (1,000 x 10) $10,000

Variable expense (1,000 x 5.5) $5,500

Contribution margin $4,500

Less: Fixed Cost $2,250

Net operating income $2,250

•@1,001 units

Sales (1,001 x 10) $10,010

Variable expense (1,001 x 5.5) $5,505.50

Contribution margin $4,504.50

Less: Fixed cost $2,250

Net operating income 2,254.50

Therefore, $2,254.50 - $2,250 = $4.50

5. Sales (900 x 10 ) $9,000

Variable expense (900 x 5.5) $4,950

Contribution margin $ 4,050

Less: Fixed cost $2,250

Total net operating income $1,800

6. Sales (900 x 11.50) $10,350

Variable cost (900 x 5.50) $4,950

Contribution margin $5,400

Less: Fixed cost $2,250

Net operating income $3,150

7. Sales (1,250 x 10) $12,500

Variable cost (1,250 x 6) $7,500

Contribution margin $5,000

Less: Fixed cost (2,250 + 1,000) $3,250

Net operating income $1,750

8. Break-even point in unit sales

BEP =Total fixed cost / (sale per unit - variable cost)

BEP = $2,250 / (10-5.5)

BEP = $2,250/$4.5

BEP = 500 units

9.Break-even point in dollar sales

BES = Total fixed expense/contribution margin ratio

BES = $2,250/([10,000-5,500]/10,000)

BES = $2,250/0.45

BES = $5,000

10. Let’s begin with the desired net operating income.

•$8,100 + Fixed cost = Contribution margin / (Sales per unit - Variable cost)

•$8,109 + $2,250 = $10,350/(10-5.50)

•$10,350/4.50

•2,300 units

11.Margin of safety = Projected sales - Break-even sales

MOS = $10,000(1,000 x 10) - $5,000 (as computed above #9)

MOS = $5,000

12. Degree of Operating leverage

DoL = (Sales-Variable cost) / (Sales - Variable cost - Fixed cost)

DoL = ($10,000 - 5,500) / ($10,000 - 5,500 - 2,250)

DoL = $4,500/$2,250

DoL = 2

13. 3% / 2 = 1.5%

• DoL simply signifies how many times the operating profit increase or decrease in relation to sales.

6 0

3 years ago

Which of the following statements regarding Federal Reserve independence is incorrect?

hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is option D

D. The 14-year non-renewable terms for governors effectively insulate the Board of Governors from political pressure

Explanation: Option D is incorrect regarding federal reserve independence.

8 0

3 years ago

If a firm has a cash cycle of 30 days and an operating cycle of 64 days, what is its average payment period

elixir [45]

Answer: 34 days

Explanation:

The average payment period is a measure that is used to show the time the firm takes on average to pay its creditors.

The formula is:

Cash cycle = Operating cycle - Average payment period

30 = 64 - APP

APP + 30 = 64

APP = 64 - 30

APP = 34 days

5 0

3 years ago