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2 years ago

Answer first and I will mark brainliest

Mathematics

2 answers:

Serhud [2]2 years ago

7 0

Answer: The cost after 7 years should be $5740.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you find the ammoun that the value decreases each year, and multiply that by your 7 years you get your answer.

tino4ka555 [31]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

A 6660 it decreases by 820 so 8,300-820=7480 and then 7480-820=6660

$6,660

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An art teacher has a jar containing b buttons to distribute to her class for a project. In order to give each in the class 6 but

Nastasia [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

An art teacher has the total number of buttons = $b$

1. In order to give each in the class 6 buttons, she will need 18 more buttons.

2. If she gives each child 5 buttons, she will have 4 left over.

Question asked:

How many children are in the class ?

Solution:

Let total number of children in the class = $x$

As given that, 18 more buttons will be needed to give 6 buttons to each.

The equation will be:-

$b+18=6x\\b-6x=-18\ (equation\ 1)$

Also given that, If she gives 5 buttons to each, she will have 4 left over.

The equation will be:-

$b-5x=4\ (equation\ 2)$

Subtraction equation 2 from 1

$b-6x-(b-5x)=-18-4\\b-6x-b+5x=-22\\-6x+5x=-22\\-x=-22\\Minus\ canceled\ by\ minus\\x=22$

Hence, total number of children are 22.

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3 years ago

Is 3/4 a rational number, whole number, integer?

Elden [556K]

I think its a rational number

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2 years ago

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alexdok [17]

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3 years ago

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Which of the following statements are true? Check all that apply.

gavmur [86]

"Volume(10) = 1,000" and "Volume(2) = 8" are the two statements among the following choices given in the question that is true. The correct options among all the options that are given in the question are option "B" and option "C". I hope that this is the answer that has actually come to your great help.

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3 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

3 years ago