Answer:
a. 1.51 containers
b. Fewer
Explanation:
The computations are shown below:
a. The number of containers would be
= Annual demand × time × (1 + inefficiency factor) ÷ holding pieces
= 70 × 0.75 × (1 + 0.15) ÷ 40
= 1.51 containers
The time is converted from minutes to hour i.e 45 minutes ÷ 60 minutes = 0.75
b. If the system improves, the fewer containers are required i.e 2 containers approximate because inefficiency factor got decreased
Answer:
A. Personal help and interaction wider.
Explanation:
Due to the physical contact and getting to physically recognise each other, the familiarity increase the level of personal relationship.
FV: 1000
PV: -920
I/Y: 6/2= 3
N: 9(2)= 18
CPT PMT: 24.1833
this payment is for semi annually, the question asks for annual so:
24.1833(2)= 48.37
Answer:
The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.
Explanation:
A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).
So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.
The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability.
- Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
- Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
- Subsequently refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
Answer:
The beta is 1
Explanation:
The computation of beta using the CAPM model is shown below:
As we know that
Expected rate of return = Risk free rate of return + Beta × Market risk premium
9.5% = 5% + Beta × 9.0%
9.5% - 5% = Beta × 9.0%
9.0% = Beta × 9.0%
So, the beta is 1
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come
And, the same is to be considered
