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ira [324]
3 years ago
9

Q.2Tullahoma Company purchased equipment for $27,500. It depreciated the equipment over a fiveyear life by the double-declining-

balance method until the end of the second year, at which time the asset was sold for $8,500. Calculate the gain or loss on the sale at the end of the second year.
Business
1 answer:
melisa1 [442]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A loss of $1400

Explanation:

The double-declining method uses twice the straight-line depreciation method rate in calculating the depreciation amount.

The asset has a useful life of 5 years. The straight-line depreciation rate = 1/5 x 100

=20%.

The double-declining rate will be 40%

The depreciation schedule for two years will be as follows.

Open. Bal Dep. rate Dep. Amount  Book value

$27,500  40%  $11,000   $16,500.00

$16,500  40%  $6,600             $9,900.00

The equipment was sold for $8,500

net gain or loss will be the selling price - book value

=$8,500 - $9,900

=- $1,400

A loss of $1400

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Scottso Corporation applies overhead using a normal costing approach based upon machine-hours. Budgeted factory overhead was $26
seropon [69]

Answer:

Overhead application rate

= <u>Budgeted overhead</u>

  Budgeted machine hours

= <u>$266,400</u>

  18,500 hours

= $14.40 per machine hour

Overhead applied

= Overhead application rate x Actual machine hours

= $14.40 x 19,050 hours

= $274,320

Under-applied overhead

= Overhead applied - Actual factory overhead

= $274,320 - $287,920

= $13,600

Explanation:

In this question, there is need to determine the overhead application rate, which is the ratio of budgeted factory overhead to budgeted machine hours. Then, we will calculate the overhead applied, which is overhead application rate multiplied by actual machine hours. Under-applied overhead is the difference between overhead applied and actual factory overhead.                              .

6 0
3 years ago
Temporary investmentsa. are reported as current assetsb. include cash equivalentsc. do not include equity securitiesd. All of th
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

D. All of the above

Explanation:

Temporary investments are investments carried out by owners of funds that wants to earn interest from their excess funds that is only available for a short term. The owners of such fund prefer to earn little interest by investing in near cash or cash equivalent investment instead of leaving his fund in an interest-free condition. Example of temporary investment is certificate of deposit and some fixed deposits instrument available for the short term.

Temporary investments are reported as current assets in the balance sheet of a business.

5 0
3 years ago
Goodwill arises when one firm acquires the net assets of another firm and pays more for those net assets than their current fair
liberstina [14]

Answer:

Takeover Co.

a) Goodwill = $146,000

b) Target's ROI = 36.42%

c) Takeover's ROI = 21.07%

d) False

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Target Co's net assets fair value = $162,000

Payment by Takeover Co = $308,000

Goodwill = $146,000 ($308,000 - $162,000)

b) Target's ROI:

Operating income = $59,000

Net assets = $162,000

ROI = ($59,000/$162,000) * 100

= 36.42%

c) Takeover Co's ROI:

Operating income = $64,900

Net assets = $308,000

ROI = $64,900/$308,000 * 100

= 21.07%

d) Takeover Co:

Goodwill = $93,000

Purchase price of Target = $255,000 ($93,000 + $162,000)

5 0
3 years ago
_________ integration is where a firm uses a mix of in-house and outsourced activities for the various stages of the vertical ac
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

Tapered integration

Explanation:

Tapered integration is a term in organization theory that is a mix of market exchange and vertical integration. Advantages of vertical integration include risk protection, motivation tool for market and internal division, enlargement of input channels with little capital outlays,

the use of information on internal cost to discuss contracts with market.

Its disadvantages are monitoring issues, inefficiency and minimal production.

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the central bank has increased the money supply such that there is an additional $ 868981 in excess reserves. If th
Olin [163]

Answer:

$7,899,827

Explanation:

The computation of the maximum increase in money supply is shown below:

Data given in the question

Additional value in excess reserves = $868,981

Reserve ratio = 11%

By considering the above information, the maximum increase in money supply is

= Additional value in excess reserves × 100 ÷ reserve ratio

= $868,981 × 100 ÷ 11

= $868,981 × 9.09

= $7,899,827

3 0
3 years ago
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