Answer: The answer is 8.
Step-by-step explanation: The first step is to convert the expression into figures. We shall call the unknown number Y. So if we are told “the square of a number,” that means Y squared, or better still, Y^2. Further we are told “the difference between the square of a number and 40” and that can be written as;
Y^2 - 40.
Next we are told that this expression is equal to 3 times that number (that is 3Y). That can now be written out as follows,
Y^2 - 40 = 3Y
If we move all expressions to one side of the equation, what we would have is,
Y^2 - 3Y -40 = 0
(Remember that when a positive value crosses to the other side of an equation it becomes negative and vice versa)
We now have a quadratic equation
Y^2 -3Y - 40 = 0
By factorizing we now have
(Y -8) (Y + 5) = 0
Therefore Y - 8 = 0 or
Y + 5 = 0
Hence, Y = 8 or Y = -5
Since we are asked to calculate the positive solution, Y = 8
Mark up value is either a fixed amount or a percentage of the total cost or selling price.
In this problem, mark up value is the percentage of the total cost.
To determine the retail price, total cost and mark up must be added.
Selling Price = Total Cost + Mark up value based on Total Cost
However, we are looking for the Total cost. Thus, our formula should be
Total Cost = Selling Price - Mark up value based on Total Cost.
Let X = total cost.
Selling Price = $8,000
Mark up vale = 6% of total cost.
X = $8,000 - 6%X
X = $8,000 - 0.06X
To get X, transfer -0.06X to the other side and change its sign from negative to positive.
X + 0.06X = $8000
1.06X = $8000
To get X, divide both sides by 1.06
1.06X / 1.06 = $8000 / 1.06
X = $7,547.17 total cost.
The problem is looking for the mark up value and since it states that the mark up value is 6% of the total cost, then:
Total Cost x 6% = Mark up value
$7,547.17 x 0.06 = $452.83 mark up value
To check:
X + 0.06X = $8000
$7547.17 + $452.83 = $8000
$8000 = $8000 equal.
Answer:
One solution
Step-by-step explanation:
I think its 1 solution but I could be wrong, I looked it up and it said one solution.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that in a group of 40 people, 35% have never been abroad. Two people are selected at random without replacement and are asked about their past travel experience.
Since the two are drawn without replacement the first trial affects the second trial. In other words, each trial is not independent of the other.
a) Hence this cannot be binomial experiment. The reason is p=probability for each trial is not constant as first draw affect the probability for Ii draw
b) The probability that in a random sample of 2, no one has been abroad
=Prob of selecting both people from the group where no one has been abroad
We have in the group 35% i.e. 14 people never been to abroad
So required probability = Prob of selecting both from 14 people
=
