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swat32
3 years ago
7

Lines m and n are parallel. The measure of angle 6 is 55°.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Yuki888 [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

<em>Firstly</em><em> </em><em>angle </em><em>6</em><em> </em><em>a</em><em>n</em><em>d</em><em> </em><em> </em><em>2</em><em> </em><em>are </em><em>equal </em><em>because</em><em> </em><em>of </em><em>corresponding</em><em> </em><em>angles </em>

<em>so </em><em>6</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>2</em>

<em>Now </em><em>angle </em><em>1</em><em> </em><em>+</em><em> </em><em>2</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>8</em><em>0</em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em>(</em><em> </em><em>linear </em><em>pair)</em>

<em>angle </em><em>1</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>8</em><em>0</em><em> </em><em>-</em><em> </em><em>5</em><em>5</em>

<em>1</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>2</em><em>5</em>

<em>hope</em><em> it</em><em> helps</em><em> and</em><em> your</em><em> day</em><em> will</em><em> fine</em>

Andreyy893 years ago
3 0

Answer:155

Step-by-step explanation:

because they are parallel lines. If the angles differed even by 1°, eventually the lines would meet, therefore they would not be parallel.

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Help Me Asap Please And Thank You!
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In this case using the elimination method is actually easier, but the question asks you to use substitution method so....

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