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3 years ago

What is the measure, in degrees, of angle b?

Mathematics

2 answers:

nordsb [41]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

angle b+20 degree=40 degree(being vertically oppoite angles)

angle b=40-20

angle b=20

therefore angle b=20 degree.

leonid [27]3 years ago

3 0

The top angle is the same as the bottom angle, since they are vertically opposite angles.

b+20=40

b=40-20

b=20

It is also 20 degrees.

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Simplify the complex number √-16+8.

cestrela7 [59]

Answer:

$\sqrt{-16} +8$

$=4i+8$

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3 0

3 years ago

In the United States, voters who are neither Democrat nor Republican are called Independent. It is believed that 11% of voters a

Radda [10]

Answer:

a) 0.0214 = 2.14% probability that none of the people are Independent.

b) 0.8516 = 85.16% probability that fewer than 6 are Independent.

c) 0.8914 = 89.14% probability that more than 2 people are Independent.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each people, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are independent, or they are not. For each person asked, the probability of them being Independent voters is the same. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

It is believed that 11% of voters are Independent.

This means that $p = 0.11$

A survey asked 33 people to identify themselves as Democrat, Republican, or Independent.

This means that $n = 33$

A. What is the probability that none of the people are Independent?

This is P(X = 0). So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

0.0214 = 2.14% probability that none of the people are Independent.

B. What is the probability that fewer than 6 are Independent?

This is

$P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5)$

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

$P(X = 1) = C_{33,1}.(0.11)^{1}.(0.89)^{32} = 0.0872$

$P(X = 2) = C_{33,2}.(0.11)^{2}.(0.89)^{31} = 0.1724$

$P(X = 3) = C_{33,3}.(0.11)^{3}.(0.89)^{30} = 0.2202$

$P(X = 4) = C_{33,4}.(0.11)^{4}.(0.89)^{29} = 0.2041$

$P(X = 5) = C_{33,5}.(0.11)^{5}.(0.89)^{28} = 0.1463$

$P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) = 0.0214 + 0.0872 + 0.1724 + 0.2202 + 0.2041 + 0.1463 = 0.8516$

0.8516 = 85.16% probability that fewer than 6 are Independent.

C. What is the probability that more than 2 people are Independent?

This is:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{33,0}.(0.11)^{0}.(0.89)^{33} = 0.0214$

$P(X = 1) = C_{33,1}.(0.11)^{1}.(0.89)^{32} = 0.0872$

$P(X < 2) = 0.0214 + 0.0872 = 0.1086$

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.1086 = 0.8914$

0.8914 = 89.14% probability that more than 2 people are Independent.

8 0

2 years ago

2x + y = 11...(1)

Andre45 [30]

basically you wrote the answer

Answer is B

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which expression is equivalent to 2(7b + 5)?

DENIUS [597]

2(7b + 5) will equal to 14b+10

Explanation:

2 times 7b= 14b

2 times 5= 10

4 0

3 years ago

A company's year-end data shows the following amounts. Current assets $65,000 Current liabilities $25,000 Net income $7,500 Net

lozanna [386]

The company's current ratio is 2.6.

<h3>What is the current ratio?</h3>

Current ratio is an example of a liquidity ratio. Liquidity ratios are financial ratios measure a firm's ability to honour its short terms obligations.

Current ratio = current asset /current liability

$65,000 / 25,000 = 2.6

To learn more about current ratio, please check: brainly.com/question/19579866

#SPJ1

4 0

2 years ago