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ra1l [238]
2 years ago
6

Help Need for a test

Business
1 answer:
Debora [2.8K]2 years ago
8 0

B. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

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The following information was available for the year ended December 31, 2019: Net sales $ 894,250 Cost of goods sold 616,850 Ave
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

Explanation:

Net sales - $894,250

Cost of Goods - $ 616850

Average account receivable - $40,650

Account receivable at year end - $28200

Average inventory - $182000

Inventory at year end - $158,000

Inventory turn over

Cost of Goods sold / Average inventory for the period

616850/182000= 3.40 times

No of days sales in inventory = Ending inventory / Cost of Goods sold *365

158000/616850*365 = 93.5 days

Account receivable turnover = net credit sale / average receivable

894250/40650=21.9

No of days sales in account receivable -

Receivable at year end/total credit sales*365

28200/894250*365= 11.5 days

7 0
3 years ago
Its best if you share details of a personal appointment when you need time off work. True False
Reika [66]
I would say false because 'personal' is in the name. Your work doesn't really need to know the exact details (might depend on the business tho). 
7 0
3 years ago
Texas Corporation is undergoing a complete liquidation and distributes land to​ Robert, one of its​ shareholders, in exchange fo
Oxana [17]

Answer:

Loss to be recognized is $25000

Explanation:

Liquidation refers to a process whereby a company's operation come to an end, which leads to distribution of assets and liabilities to the claimants and winding up the business.

A company may be forced to liquidate owing to consistent losses. In such cases, the claims of all the stakeholders cannot be satisfied and they receive pro-rata basis allocation which covers everybody's claim to an extent, if not fully.

In the given case,

Robert's receipt is Land. Liabilities attached to the land being $325,000 while the land has fair market value of $400,000.

Thus, after assuming the liability, Robert's actual realized amount is,

$400,000 - $325,000 = $75,000

Since, the land was received in consideration for discharge of Robert's own share in company amounting to $100,000.

Thus, Gain/Loss to be recognized by Robert = $75, 000 (receipts) - $100,000

                                                                  = - $25,000

i.e Robert should recognize a loss of $25,000.

4 0
3 years ago
If a patent lawyer works for a startup without cash compensation, but receives instead shares in the presumably soon-to-be-succe
masha68 [24]
<span>sweat equity, the patent lawyer is doing for a project or enterprise in the form of effort to work for the ownership interest in a business that will increase in value it is a preferred mode of building equity for entrepreneurs who do have much money in their start-up ventures since they may be unable to provide as much financial capital to their business</span>
8 0
3 years ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
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