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timurjin [86]
4 years ago
13

Which polynomial is a perfect square trinomial?

Mathematics
1 answer:
san4es73 [151]4 years ago
5 0
The definition of a perfect square trinomial:
When a square of a number (3*3=9) can also add up to another number in the trinomial (3+3=6)

In my example here the equation, in order to be a perfect square trinomial, would be: X^2+6y+9

Now to look at the problem. We can instantly single out C because 10*10 is 100 but 10+10 is not five.
If we look at A we can find the root of 25 (5) but 5+5 is 10 not five. So A is incorrect
Using our previous calculation we know that 5 is our magic number. Leaving us with B and D. If we look at D we can conclude that -5*5 would be -25 but -5+5 is zero. So, it is not D
Using power of elimination we can easily conclude that B is the correct answer. If you wish to check: (5+5=10) (5*5=25)

Answer: B

Hope this helped!
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Two parallel lines are crossed by a transversal. What is the value of D?
Sliva [168]

Answer:c

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose f(x) = x^2 and g(x) = (1/4)^2. Which statement best compares the graph of g(x) with the graph of f(x)
hjlf

Answer:

g(x) is the image of f(x) after stretched horizontally by scale factor = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

The statement that best compares the graph of  g(x) with the graph of f(x) says g(x) is the image of f(x) after stretched horizontally by scale factor = 4 because:

Given the function

f(x) = x²  and g(x) = (1/4x)² the image of f(x) after one transformation.  

The transformation shows that g(x) stretches away from y-axis.  

Since the transformation is stretched horizontally. So g(x) is the image of f(x) after stretched horizontally by scale factor (I.e. by 1).

Then we use the scale factor to divide g(x)

1 ÷ ¼ = 1 x 4/1 = 4  

So therefore, g(x) is the image of f(x) after stretched horizontally by scale factor = 4

8 0
4 years ago
15 points!!! GEOMETRY help please!!<br> Questions attached!
marishachu [46]
9.
\text{If QR is tangent to circle then m}\angle PQR=90^o

\text{We can use the converse of Pythagorean theorem}

8\ and\ 4\sqrt3\\\\check:\ 4^2+(4\sqrt3)^2=8^2\\16+16\cdot3=64\\16+48=64\\64=64\ -O.K.\\\\2\ and\ 4\sqrt2\\\\check:\ 4^2+2^2=(4\sqrt2)^2\\16+4=16\cdot2\\20=32\ -FALSE\\\\3\ and\ 5\\\\check:\ 3^2+4^2=5^2\\9+16=25\\25=25\ -O.K.\\\\2\ and\ 2\sqrt5\\\\check:\ 4^2+2^2=(2\sqrt5)^2\\16+4=4\cdot5\\20=20\ -O.K.\\\\6\ and\ 10\\check:\ 4^2+6^2=10^2\\16+36=100\\52=100\ -FALSE

\text{Answer:}\boxed{8\ and\ 4\sqrt3;\ 3\ and\ 5;\ 2\ and\ 2\sqrt5}


10.
\text{Look at the pictures}

\text{Therefore}\\\\C=2\cdot8+2\cdot16+2\cdot9+2\cdot6=16+32+18+12=78cm

Other\ method:\\C=2\cdot(8+16+6+9)=2\cdot39=78cm

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The probability of a football team winning a game is three fifths. If they play 45 games in a season, how many games would you e
Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

27 games

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of them winning is 3 out of 5 games.

First, multiply 45 by \frac{3}{5}

\frac{45}{1} *\frac{3}{5}

\frac{135}{5}

27 games.

<u />

You could also just multiply 45 by 3 then divide by 5. Mostly the same thing

I hope this helps!

8 0
4 years ago
Given that €1 = £0.72<br> A) How much is €410 in £?<br><br> B) What is the £ to € exchange rate?
Natalka [10]

Answer:

€295.2

Step-by-step explanation:

410x0.72 = 295.2

please mark brainliest

8 0
3 years ago
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