Answer:
Present value of sales price = 465,395.16
Present Value of future cash flow= 465,359.16
Explanation:
The present value of a sum expected in the future is the worth today given an opportunity cost interest rate. In another words ,it is amount receivable today that would make the investor to be indifferent between the amount receivable today and the future sum.
The present value of a lump sum can be worked out as follows:
PV = FV × (1+r)^(-n)
Present Value of sales price= 3.1 × 1.11^(-6) =1.65739
Present Value=165,738.65
Present Value of an annuity of 110,000 for 6 years:
PV = A × 1- ( (1+r)^(-n))/r
PV = 110,000× (1-1.11^(-6))/0.11= 465,359.16
PV = 465,359.16
Basically I don’t know the answer but it wants me to put something
Well if total they valued at 100000 and you bought 2500 all you would have to do is divide 100000 by 2500 which is about $40 each :)
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.
risk free = 0.05
market rate = 0.12
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0
Ke 0.05000
As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility
I THINK ITS MIDDLE FINGERS AT THESE AHOLE MODERATORS
