Question

Determine whether the improper integral converges or diverges, and find the value of each that converges.

Answer 1

Answer:

It diverges.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the inetegral:  $\int\limits^{\infty}_2 \frac{1}{x} (\ln x)^2 dx$

$\int\limits^{\infty}_2 \frac{1}{x} (\ln x)^2 dx=\int\limits^{\infty}_2 (\ln x)^2 d(\ln x)=\\\\=\lim_{t \to \infty} \int\limits^t_2 (\ln x)^2d(\ln x)=\lim_{t \to \infty} \frac{(\ln t)^3}{3} |^t_2=\infty-\frac{(\ln 2)^3}{3} =\infty$

So it is divergent.