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poizon [28]
3 years ago
15

Assume that a state government currently provides no child-care subsidies to working single parents, but it now wants to adopt a

plan that will encourage labor force participation among single parents. Suppose that child-care costs are hourly, and suppose the government adopts a child-care subsidy that pays $3 per hour for each hour the parent works, up to 8 hours per day. Draw a current budget constraint (net of child-care costs) for an assumed single mother and then draw in the new constraint. Discuss the likely effects on labor force participation and hours of work.
Business
1 answer:
sergiy2304 [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The line on the graph will be parallel to the pre-subsidy line and the new constraint will then be equal to the points connecting the two lines.

Explanation:

The subsidy by government to single parents is $3 per hour for up to 8 hours. The total of subsidy will be $16 for each day. The labor force who were not receiving the subsidy before had steep indifference curve but now few workers will find utility maximization with flatter indifference curve so the workers will join the subsidy program.

You might be interested in
Complete the balance sheet and sales information in the table that follows for J. White
deff fn [24]

Answer:

Sales $600,000

Cost of Goods Sold $450,000

Cash $28,000

Accounts payable $110,000

Accounts receivable $60,000

Inventory $120,000

Common Stock $140,000

Fixed Asset $192,000

Total Liabilities and equity $400,000

Explanation:

1.To compute the missing amount of sales, we must look for the data given that has something to do with sales. And the two data given that will give us the hint are the Asset turnover and the total asset.

ASSET TURNOVER = Net Sales / Total Asset

1.5 = Net Sales * $400,000

Net Sales = 1.5 * $400,000

Net Sales = $600,000

To check if the answer is correct:

$600,000 / $400,000 = 1.5 <em>which is equal to the data given</em>

<em />

2. The Sales has been computed above and Gross profit margin on sales is present, these are the hint we needed to compute the Cost of goods sold.

Sales  100%

<u>Less: Gross profit margin on sales 25%</u>

Cost of goods sold ratio on sales 75%

Therefore, $600,000 x 75% (ratio on sales) = $450,000

3.ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLE

It is impossible to compute the cash based on the data given without the accounts receivable. So, let's compute the accounts receivable beforehand.

The additional hint that we have is the Days sales outstanding (based on 365-day year).

  • Days sales outstanding = Accounts receivable / (Annual credit sales / 365 days)
  • 36.5 days = Accounts receivable / ($600,000 / 365)
  • Accounts receivable = 36.5 * ($600,000 / 365)
  • Accounts receivable = $60,000

<em>To check our answer:</em>

<em>$60,000 / ($600,000 / 365)</em>

<em>$60,000 / 1,643.84</em>

<em>36.5 days</em>

<em />

4. ACCOUNTS PAYABLE

Next missing item that we will compute is the accounts payable. The hint that we have that is related to the computation of accounts payable is the Liability to asset ratio.

FORMULA :

Liability to asset ratio = Total Liabilities / Total Assets

40% = Total Liabilities / $400,000

Total Liabilities = 40% * $400,000

Total liabilities = $160,000

To Check:

<em>$160,000 / $400,000 = 40% which is equal to the data given</em>

<em>Next Step, Compute accounts payable (the only current liability account in the given partial income statement). Long term debt is the only non-current liability on the data given, which means it is the only account that is included in the total liability of $160,000.</em>

<em />

So, $160,000 less $50,000 = $110,000 (accounts payable)

5. CASH

We can now compute the cash based on the accounts already computed above. The additional hint that we have is the quick ratio. Quick ratio is the quotient of Cash & cash equivalent plus Marketable securities (which is not present in the data given, therefore ignore) plus the accounts receivable over the current liability.

Computation:

0.80 = (Cash + Marketable security + Accounts receivable) / current liability

0.80 = (Cash + Accounts receivable) / $110,000

Cash + Accounts receivable = 0.80 * $110,000

Cash + Accounts receivable = 88,000

Cash + $60,000 = $88,000

Cash = $88,000 - $60,000

Cash = $28,000

6. INVENTORY

To compute the inventory, we need the inventory turn-over hint.

Inventory turn-over = Cost of goods sold / Average inventory

3.75 = $450,000 / Ave inventory

Average inventory = $450,000 / 3.75

Average inventory = $120,000

to check:

<em>$450,000 / $120,000 = 3.75 which is equal to the data given</em>

<em />

7. COMMON STOCK

Total asset = Liabilities + Equity

$400,000 = $160,000 +?

$400,000 - $160,000 = $240,000

Equity is composed of common stock and retained earnings. Therefore, $240,000 - $100,000 (Retained earnings) = $140,000 (common stock)

8. FIXED ASSET

It is the only asset account that is missing after we computed cash, accounts receivable and inventory. Therefore total assets less current assets equals fixed assets.

  • $400,000 - ($28,000 + $60,000 + $120,000)
  • $400,000 - $208,000
  • $192,000 (fixed assets)

9. TOTAL LIABILITIES AND EQUITY

Current liability + Non-current liability + Common stock + Retained earnings

$110,000 + $50,000 + $140,000 + $100,000

$400,000

6 0
4 years ago
Johnny Cake Ltd. has 8 million shares of stock outstanding selling at $20 per share and an issue of $40 million in 8 percent ann
dangina [55]

Answer:

Year   Cashflow    [email protected]%      PV           [email protected]%     PV

               $                                 $                                  $

  0        (905)           1           (905)           1                 (905)

1-16     52.80         7.8237     413        10.8377           572

16        1,000          0.2176     218      0.4581             458

                                  NPV     (274)              NPV        125                    

Kd = LR     + NPV1/NPV1+NPV2    x (HR – LR)

Kd = 5       + 125/125 + 274   x (10 – 5)

Kd = 5       + 125/399 x 5

Kd = 6.57%    

 

Ke = D1/Po   + g

 Ke = $3/$20 + 0.04

 Ke = 0.19 = 19%

WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)

WACC = 19(160,000,000/196,200,000) + 6.57(36,200,000/196,200,000)

WACC = 15.49 + 1.21

WACC = 16.7%

Market value of the company                                          $

Market value of equity (8,000,000 x $20)                      160,000,000

Market value of bond   ($40,000,000 x $905/$1,000)   36,200,000

Market value of the company                                            196,200,000

Explanation:

In this case, we will calculate cost of debt using interpolation formula. The cashflow for year 0 is the current market price while the cashflow for year 1 to 16 refers to after-tax coupon, which is calculated as R(1-T). R = 8% x $1,000 par value = $80. Then, R(1-T) = 80(1-0.34) = $52.80. The cashflow for year 16 is the par value. The cashflows are discounted in order to obtain the cost of debt.

Cost of equity is the ratio of expected dividend to current market price plus growth rate.

WACC is the aggregate of cost of each capital multiplied by the proportion of each stock in the market value of the company.

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the fair-value method of accounting?
Mama L [17]

Answer: Option (A)

Explanation:

Fair values mostly tends to exist for the marketable security but this in terms does not state that this method is applicable. For instance if investor tends to control the entity with the traded equity, therefore the investment is centralized and thereby, fair-value method of accounting is not being used.

Therefore, from the given options we can state that option (A) does not precisely describes the fair value method.

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a type of tort?
Scrat [10]

Answer:

b

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
at the end of the current period oriole had a projected benefit obligation of and pension plan assets of what are the accounts a
kakasveta [241]

The accounts and amounts that will be reported on the company's balance sheet as pension assets are:

1. Pension Plan Assets: The amount reported will be equal to the projected benefit obligation of the company.

2. Accrued Pension Benefit Liability: The amount reported will be equal to the difference between the projected benefit obligation and the pension plan assets.

The Pension Plan Assets account will be reported as the current market value of the pension plan assets.

The Accumulated Benefit Obligation account will be reported as the projected benefit obligation, which is the current value of the benefits that will be owed to employees in the future.

The difference between these two amounts is the company's net pension assets or liabilities.

For example, if the projected benefit obligation is $3 million and the pension plan assets are $2.5 million, the net pension assets would be reported as a liability of $0.5 million.

To know more about pensions here

brainly.com/question/15395365

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
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