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vovikov84 [41]
3 years ago
5

Which of the following statements regarding personal and/or rental use of a home is false? Multiple Choice A day for which a tax

payer rents a home to an unrelated party for less than the property's fair market value is considered to be a personal-use day. A day for which a taxpayer rents a home to a relative for full fair market value is considered to be a rental use day (home is not the relative’s principal residence). A day for which an unrelated nonowner stays in the home under a vacation exchange arrangement is considered to be a personal-use day. A day for which the home is available for rent but is not occupied does not count as a personal-use or a rental use day.
Business
1 answer:
evablogger [386]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A day for which a taxpayer rents a home to a relative for full fair market value is considered to be a

rental use day.

Explanation:

Personal use property can be regarded as type of property/ asset that is not been used by individual for purpose of business or investment purpose. personal use portion of interest on mortgage as well as property taxes is been passed on to the owners. In the case, whereby the the property qualifies as a residence, whereby the property is been rented like less than 15 days within the year, the rental income cannot be taxed

It should be noted that some instances of personal and/or rental use of a home are;

✓ A day for which a taxpayer rents a home to an unrelated party for less than the property's fair market value is considered to be a personal-use day.

✓ A day for which an unrelated nonowner stays in the home under a vacation exchange arrangement is considered to be a personal-use day.

✓A day for which the home is available for rent but is not occupied does not count as a personal-use or a rental use day.

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Liang Company began operations in Year 1. During its first two years, the company completed a number of transactions involving s
horsena [70]

Answer:

1). Account receivables A/c Dr. $1,345,000

                 To sales revenue  A/c $1,345,000

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $975,700

          To merchandise inventory A/c $975,700

(Being the cost is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $19,400

       To accounts receivable A/c $19,400

(Being the written off is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $670,800

           To accounts receivables A/c $670,800

(Being cash received is recorded

1. .Account receivable A/c Dr. $1,529,400

                    To sales A/c $1,529,400

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $1,332,100

          To merchandise inventory A/c $1,332,100

(Being the cost of goods sold  is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $27,000

        To Account receivable A/c $27,000

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $1,391,600

            To account receivable A/c $1,391,600

(Being the cash received is recorded)

4. Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $28,000

(765,600 × 1% + 20,344)

    To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $28,000

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Working note:

Ending Receivables = (654800 + 1529400 - 27,000 - 1,391,600) = $765,600

Total Receivables of 1st Year = 1,345,000 - 19,400 - 670,800 = $654,800

Before Adjustment Ending Allowance Balance = 65,4800 × 1% - 27,000

= 6,548 - 27,000

= 20,344 Debit BalanceThe journal entries are shown below:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows:-

Journal Entries for 1st year

1). Account receivables A/c Dr. $1,345,000

                 To sales revenue  A/c $1,345,000

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $975,700

          To merchandise inventory A/c $975,700

(Being the cost is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $19,400

       To accounts receivable A/c $19,400

(Being the written off is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $670,800

           To accounts receivables A/c $670,800

(Being cash received is recorded)

4.  Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $38,389

(1,345,000-19,400-670,800) × 2.90+ $19,400

          To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $38,389

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Journal Entries for 2nd year

1. .Account receivable A/c Dr. $1,529,400

                    To sales A/c $1,529,400

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $1,332,100

          To merchandise inventory A/c $1,332,100

(Being the cost of goods sold  is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $27,000

        To Account receivable A/c $27,000

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $1,391,600

            To account receivable A/c $1,391,600

(Being the cash received is recorded)

4. Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $28,000

(765,600 × 1% + 20,344)

    To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $28,000

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Working note:

Ending Receivables = (654800 + 1529400 - 27,000 - 1,391,600) = $765,600

Total Receivables of 1st Year = 1,345,000 - 19,400 - 670,800 = $654,800

Before Adjustment Ending Allowance Balance = 65,4800 × 1% - 27,000

= 6,548 - 27,000

= 20,344 Debit Balance

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Firm M's earnings and stock price tend to move up and down with other firms in the S&P 500, while Firm W's earnings and stoc
sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

The answer is letter C.

Explanation:

The correct statement is If M and W merge, then the merged firm MW should have a WACC that is a simple average of M's and W's WACCs.

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3 years ago
Larkspur, Inc. reports net income of $91,800 in 2022. However, ending inventory was understated $7,800. What is the correct net
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

$99,600

Explanation:

If the ending inventory was understated that means that they have less of the inventory than they had originally expected, this means that they sold more than they have calculated and therefore have not included the $7,800 in the net income. Therefore, we would need to add this amount to the actual reported net income to get the correct net income for 2022...

$91,800 + $7,800 = $99,600

The correct net income for 2022 is $99,600

3 0
3 years ago
In order to ensure that an item never comes up for consideration in the first place, individuals will sometimes try to control t
notka56 [123]

In order to ensure that an item never comes up for consideration in the first place, individuals will sometimes try to control the agenda.

As agenda sets out the list of things to be discussed during the meeting, so if anybody wants to hide something then they can do it by controlling the Agenda.

Thus, it is clear from this definition that political action is any activity initiated to overcome opposition or resistance. If there is no opposition, there is no need for political activity.

Finally, leadership is the ability of an individual to elicit a response from others beyond required or mechanical compliance. It is this consideration aspect of leadership that distinguishes it from power and authority.

Learn more about consideration at

brainly.com/question/27027695

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
Caddie Manufacturing has a target debt-equity ratio of .95. Its cost of equity is 11 percent, and its pretax cost of debt is 7 p
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

8.20%

Explanation:

Debt equity ratio = 0.95

or

Debt = 0.95 × equity

Cost of equity, ke = 11% or 0.11

Pretax cost of debt, kd = 7% or 0.07

Tax rate = 24% or 0.24

Therefore;

WACC = {Weight of equity × ke } + {Weight of debt × kd × (1-Tax rate)}

It is to be noted that ;

Weight of equity = Equity ÷ (Debt + Equity)

= Equity ÷ ( 0.95×Equity + Equity)

=1 ÷ 1.95

=0.513

Also,

Weight of debt = Debt ÷ ( Debt + Equity)

=0.95 × Equity ÷ ( 0.95 × Equity + Equity)

= 0.95 ÷ 1.95

=0.487

Hence,

WACC = {0.513 × 0.11} + {0.487 × 0.07 × (1-0.24)}

= {0.05643} + {0.03409 × 0.76}

= 0.0823384

or

0.0823384 × 100%

=8.23384

=8.20%

6 0
3 years ago
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