Answer:
(2.83 , 1 , 4)
Step-by-step explanation:
Rewrite these equations in matrix form
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc}2&2&-1\\4&-2&-2\\3&3&-4\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{ccc}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}4\\2\\-4\end{array}\right] \\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D2%262%26-1%5C%5C4%26-2%26-2%5C%5C3%263%26-4%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Dx%5C%5Cy%5C%5Cz%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%3D%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D4%5C%5C2%5C%5C-4%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5C%5C)
we can write it like this,
so to solve it we need to take the inverse of the 3 x 3 matrix A then multiply it by B.
We get the inverse of matrix A,
![A^{-1}=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}7/15&1/6&-1/5\\1/3&-1/6&0\\3/5&0&-2/5\end{array}\right] \\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=A%5E%7B-1%7D%3D%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D7%2F15%261%2F6%26-1%2F5%5C%5C1%2F3%26-1%2F6%260%5C%5C3%2F5%260%26-2%2F5%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%20%5C%5C)
now multiply the matrix with B
![X=A^{-1}B\\\\\left[\begin{array}{ccc}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{ccc}7/15&1/6&-1/5\\1/3&-1/6&0\\3/5&0&-2/5\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}4\\2\\-4\end{array}\right] \\\\\\\left[\begin{array}{ccc}x\\y\\z\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{ccc}2.83\\1\\4\end{array}\right] \\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=X%3DA%5E%7B-1%7DB%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Dx%5C%5Cy%5C%5Cz%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%3D%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D7%2F15%261%2F6%26-1%2F5%5C%5C1%2F3%26-1%2F6%260%5C%5C3%2F5%260%26-2%2F5%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D4%5C%5C2%5C%5C-4%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Dx%5C%5Cy%5C%5Cz%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%3D%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D2.83%5C%5C1%5C%5C4%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5C%5C)
Whats the problem that you need help with
Answer:
11 0ver 54
Step-by-step explanation:
I'm pretty sure the answer is no. A function looks like this: f(x) = mx + c. Let's add another function, f(y) = ny + d. If the x-intercept is the same, we can subtract c and d from their respective equations. f(x) = mx, f(y) = ny. If the domains are the same, then x and y can have the same value, so we divide it out. f(x) = m, f(y) = n. Finally, if the ranges are the same, the value of f(x) = f(y). So by the substitution property, m=n. Since all the variables equal each other, both functions are equal to f(x) = mx+c! Therefore, they can only be the same function.
Answer: No
