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Mamont248 [21]
3 years ago
7

50 POINTS!!!!!WILL MARK BRAINLIEST IF YOU HELP GEOMETRY. LOOK AT PHOTO FOR QUESTIONS

Mathematics
1 answer:
ki77a [65]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

hmm a chicken

Step-by-step explanation:

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Find the slope of the line 2y=42-6x
Dovator [93]
2y = -6x + 42.....in y = mx + b form, the m stands for the slope
y = -6/2x + 42/2....reduce
y = -3x + 21.....so the slope is -3
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
4. 110 in. = _<br>ft_<br>in.​
aliina [53]

Answer:

110 in. = 9  1/6 ft, or 9 ft 2 in

Step-by-step explanation:

Please try to do a better job of formatting your next question.  Thanks.

110 in       1 ft

-------- * --------- = 9 1/6 ft  or  9 ft 2 in

   1          12 in

4 0
3 years ago
Wirk out the values of 5x-2y when x=-2 and y = -2
elena-s [515]

Step-by-step explanation:

5x - 2y

5(-2) - 2(-2)

-10 + 4

= - 6

3 0
2 years ago
what is the volume of a box with the height of 3/2 inches and a length of 7/2 inches and a width of 5/2 inches
nadezda [96]

Answer:

13.125 in³

Step-by-step explanation:

So first convert all the numbers to decimal form. 3/2 converts to 1.5. 7/2 converts to 3.5. 5/2 converts to 2.5.

Now for the actual math. Take 1.5×3.5=5.25. Then take your new number and multiply it by 2.5. 5.25×2.5=13.125.

8 0
2 years ago
A bag contains 40 marbles. The probability of selecting a red marble at random is 1/5. How many red marbles are in the bag?
goblinko [34]

Answer:

8 red marbles.

Step-by-step explanation:

All together we have 40 marbles. The fraction of marbles that are red is 1/5 which means that we should divide the total number of marbles, which is 40 by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) 5 so that we get the number of groups that have 1 red marble in them. In this case we have 8 groups.

40/5=8

You always divide by the denominator ( Bottom number of fraction ) first and then you multiply your answer by the numerator ( Top number of fraction ) .

If each group has 1 red marble in it and we have 8 groups, it means that we have 8 red marbles in the bag.

1 * 8 = 8 red marbles in the bag

If the numerator (number above the fraction line) was more than one, then this would mean that we have more than 1 marble in each group of marbles.

Example:

If we had 3/5 we would have 3 marbles in each group of marbles. This means that instead of doing 1 * 8 we would have to do 3 * 8 = 24. We would have 24 red marbles in the bag.

Easy and quick way if you do not need the explanation:

Another way we could do this is by simply multiplying the fraction ( 1/5 ) by the total number of marbles ( 40 ). This would still give us an answer of 8 red marbles in the bag. 40/5=8, 8*1=8

7 0
3 years ago
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