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Bingel [31]
3 years ago
6

Taylor is a procurement specialist for Hillside Corporation. He is reviewing contracts, and notices a pattern between three part

icular contractors. Contractor A bid the lowest on the first job, Contractor B bid the lowest on the second job, and Contractor C bid the lowest on the third job. All three contractors bid on all three jobs. Which of the following is a potential scheme perpetrated by these contractors?
a. Bid tailoring
b. Bid rotation
c. Complementary bids
d. Phantom bids
Business
1 answer:
aleksandr82 [10.1K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Bid rotation is when contractors collude and  take turns in winning a bid. Colluding contractors submit bids but take turns being the low bidder.

Bid-tailoring is when an employee in collusion with a contractor tailors bid specifications to give an unfair advantage to a certain contractor.

Complementary bids are bids intended only to give the appearance of a genuine bid. Colluding  bidders submit higher priced or deliberately defective bids to in order to ensure the selection of the designated winner at inflated prices.  

Phantom bids are fake bids

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Innove Tech is a technological firm that wants to build a global service delivery system. It has consulted a larger firm, Ziff C
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

(C) Acquisition cost

Explanation:

The correct word for the given statement is acquisition cost

So option (c) is correct option

Acquisition cost alludes to the in with no reservations cost to buy a benefit. These expenses incorporate delivery, deals charges, and customs expenses, just as the expenses of site planning, establishment, and testing.

When securing property, obtaining expenses can incorporate looking over, shutting charges, and taking care of liens.

4 0
3 years ago
Pakistan State Oil - the leading oil marketing company of Pakistan, operated approved funded defined benefit pension schemes sep
mamaluj [8]

The reasons for PSO to switch from DB to DC Scheme are:

  • It has gold standard for pensions.
  • They are more secure.
  • More generous than DC pensions and pay an income that increases along with inflation.

<h3>What are the reasons for a shift?</h3>

The movement from defined benefit (DB) to defined contribution (DC) pension plans is known to be one that has made workers to decide or make choices that may affect their financial resources in terms of retirement.

Therefore,   DC Scheme is more of a benefit to the employees that the company as it tends to lower an employee's taxable income.

Learn more about pensions from

brainly.com/question/10318001

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
Radar Company sells bikes for $490 each. The company currently sells 4,300 bikes per year and could make as many as 4,620 bikes
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]

Answer:

Radar's additional income for accepting the order is calculated as follows:

Sales - 320 x $460 = $147,200

less Cost of Sales = 320 x $180 + $48,000 = $105,600

Additional Income = $41,600

Explanation:

The additional income of $41,600 is $147,200 - $105,600, which is the result of deducting cost of sales from Sales.

The cost of sales includes the variable cost per bike, including the incremental fixed costs ($48,000) to make this order.

To make a decision whether to accept an order or not, the company needs to consider all variable costs, including the incremental fixed costs.  The resulting additional income is what is available to offset the fixed costs.

8 0
3 years ago
Guardian security, inc., and hedge fund corporation enter into an oral contract under which guardian security agrees to provide
Shkiper50 [21]
The contract may be enforceable by either Guardian Security or Hedge Fund. So, either of the two is enforceable regarding the contract they have agreed. The contract are enforceably by both of the parties. So the answer in this question is either Guardian Security or Hedge Fund. Contract is a written agreement by two or more parties.
7 0
3 years ago
You have developed the following data on three stocks: Stock A has a standard deviation of .15 and a Beta of .79. Stock B has a
blondinia [14]

Answer:

As a risk minimizer : Stock A  has the lowest standard deviation, thus, it should be chosen, if it is to be held in isolation . Also stock B  has the lowest beta, thus,it should be chosen, if it is to be held as part of a well - diversified portfolio.

The answer is A and B respectively

Explanation:

The standalone risk or standard deviation of the stocks is alleviated for a well diversified investor  . So, in that case, the relevant risk would be the market risk or the beta.

When you see in isolation, relevant risk would be the standard deviation.

Therefore, as a risk minimizer : Stock A  has the lowest standard deviation, thus, it should be chosen, if it is to be held in isolation . Also stock B  has the lowest beta, thus,it should be chosen, if it is to be held as part of a well - diversified portfolio.

6 0
3 years ago
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