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Galina-37 [17]
3 years ago
11

Why do you think it's better to invest in a variety of stocks, rather than in just one?

Business
2 answers:
Cerrena [4.2K]3 years ago
7 0
If you invest in just one and you lose out, you lose all your money but if you spread your money equally there's a better chance of making more
xeze [42]3 years ago
4 0
When you invest in more than one stock it gives a better chance of getting more money than you would have, if you only did one.
You might be interested in
An analysis of the accounts of Roberts Company reveals the following manufacturing cost data for the month ended June 30, 2020.
Kryger [21]

Answer:

Cost of goods manufactured $  123,460

Cost of goods sold:                 $ 126,360

Explanation:

<em>Raw materials </em>

beginning            9500

purchased           58740

ending               <u>    (16180)   </u>

used in production   52060

<em>cost added </em>

materials         52060

direct materials 50330

overhead     <u>    23960   </u>

total                126350

<em>COGM </em>

beginning WIP   5670

added                126350

ending WIP        <u>   (8560)  </u>

COGM                 123460

<em>COGS </em>

beginning FG  9700

COGM               123460

ending FG       <u>    (6800)    </u>

COGS               126360

3 0
3 years ago
Bricktan Inc. makes three products, basic, classic, and deluxe. The maximum Bricktan can sell is 130,000 units of basic, 508,000
katrin [286]

Answer:

the total contribution margin if Bricktan chooses the most profitable sales mix is $27,000,000

Explanation:

It is important to note that the limiting factor identified is the production hours.

<em>Step 1 Calculate Contribution per limiting factor of each product</em>

Basic

1 unit requires 0.1 hours

Contribution per limiting factor = Contribution per unit / Quantity of limiting factor per unit

                                                    = $15/0.10

                                                    = $150

Classic

1 unit requires 0.125 hours

Contribution per limiting factor = Contribution per unit / Quantity of limiting factor per unit

                                                    = $25/0.125

                                                    = $200

Deluxe

1 unit requires 0.25 hours

Contribution per limiting factor = Contribution per unit / Quantity of limiting factor per unit

                                                    = $55/0.25

                                                    = $220

<em>Step 2 Rank the products </em>

1st = Deluxe

2nd = Classic

3rd = Basic

<em>Step 3 Determine the production mix</em>

Product                  Total hours demanded                Balance

Capacity                                                                       134,000

Deluxe                   (230,000×0.25) =  57,500             76,500

Classic                   (508,000×0.125) = 63,500             13,000

Basic                      (130,000×0.1)     =  13,000                  0

<em>Step 4 Calculate total contribution</em>

Deluxe                   (230,000×$55) =  12,650,000          

Classic                   (508,000×$25) =  12,700,000            

Basic                      (130,000×$15)   =  1,650,000

Total                                                 =  27,000,000              

7 0
3 years ago
For a typical firm, which of the following sequences is CORRECT? All rates are after taxes, and assume that the firm operates at
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

a. re > rs > WACC > rd.

Explanation:

Re represents cost of equity

Rs represents cost of retained earnings

WACC represents Weighted average cost of capital

Rd represents cost of debt

Basically the cost of equity is highest as there is no assured return on such equity investment.

Cost of retained earnings is less than cost of equity because amount invested is already in hands of company, although belonging to equity holders, thus is higher than total weighted cost of capital.

WACC is the cost after providing weights to every source of capital it is lower then equity, higher than debt because of average.

Cost of debt is lowest because of tax benefit from it.

6 0
4 years ago
According to purchasing-power parity, if it took 58 Indian rupees to buy a dollar today, but it took 55 to buy it a year ago, th
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

Given that,

Current exchange rate between India and U.S :

1 Dollar = Rs. 58

Exchange rate between India and U.S a year ago :

1 Dollar = Rs. 55

Above information conclude that the currency of India depreciates whereas  currency of united states appreciates.

This is due to the increase in the exchange rate in India. Now, a dollar become more expensive than it a year ago.

So, the Indian rupee depreciated and U.S dollar appreciated.

 

3 0
3 years ago
Privett Company Accounts payable $ 30,000 Accounts receivable 35,000 Accrued liabilities 7,000 Cash 25,000 Intangible assets 40,
erica [24]

Answer:

$113,000

Explanation:

As we know ,

Working capital = Total current assets - total current liabilities

where,

Total current assets = Accounts receivable + cash + inventory + marketable securities + prepaid expenses

= $35,000 + $25,000 + $72,000 + $36,000 + $2,000

= $170,000

And, the total current liabilities = Accounts payable + accrued liabilities + short term notes payable

=  $30,000 + $7,000 + $20,000

= $57,000

Now put the values to the above formula

So, the value would  be equal  to

=  $170,000 - $57,000

= $113,000

3 0
3 years ago
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