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3 years ago

Select all that apply.

2 answers:

6 0

Answer:

45 hours;

51 hours;

40 hours.

The answer choices given, as listed above, would be considered "full-time work

Hope this helps (:

Ulleksa [173]3 years ago

4 0

Pretty sure a full time job is 45 hours

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Brad buys a tablecloth from a department store. When he gets it home, he finds that the color does not go well in his dining roo

lisabon 2012 [21]

No it did not according to the rights of a consumer

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3 years ago

If Company XYZ sells $1,000,000 in assets to pay down $1,000,000 in debt, what impact would this have on the company’s debt to t

ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

B) It would decrease

Explanation:

Suppose that Company XYZ assets before the sale of assets were $2,000,000 and is total debts were $1,500,000. The debt to asset ratio before the sale of assets were:

Debt/Asset ratio=$1,500,000/$2,000,000=0.75

Now the Company XYZ has decided to sell the the assets worth $1,000,000 to pay Debts so the assets now will become $1,000,0000 while the Debts now will become $500,000 and accordingly the debt to asset ratio will be calculated as follows:

Debt/Asset ratio=$500,000/1,000,000=0.50

So based on the above discussion, the answer shall be B) It would decrease

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3 years ago

Considering the following labor markets. A slightly different feature of labor markets is that employees are the suppliers of la

scoundrel [369]

Answer:

i added the graph of both markets as an attachment

The answer is market B or 2. This market a higher level of unemployment.

When elasticity of supply increases, we have it that the suppliers would have greater market power.

In market B, we have it that the elasticity of supply is bigger than that if A. This means that the supplier has more market power in this market than in market A.

Since the elasticity us greater in this market, then we would have change in unemployment due to a fall in demand to be more here than in A.

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4 years ago

In year 1, X Company recognized an impairment loss on the trade name for its beverage product, reducing the carrying value from

ziro4ka [17]

Answer:

The value of the intangible will remain at $350,000

Explanation:

The reason is that the International Accounting Standard IAS-36 says that once the impairment is recognized for the intangible assets it can not be reversed which means that the amount reported would be $350,000. The reason is that it is very rare that the asset gain its value and specially those which are intangible assets. Most of the management in the 1990s-2000 tried to recognize a gain on impairment which was unjustifiable to increase their profits for the period so the standard specifically didn't permitted gain on a previously impaired asset.

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4 years ago

Problem 5-35 Comparing Cash Flow Streams [LO 1] You’ve just joined the investment banking firm of Dewey, Cheatum, and Howe. They

Minchanka [31]

Answer:

PV of 1st option = $185,015.50

PV of 2nd option = $192,683.78

Explanation:

Computing the present value of the monthly payments, we use the formula $PV = \frac{A(1-(1+r)^{-n}) }{r}$

Where PV = present value of the monthly payments

A = monthly salary

r = monthly interest rate = 6%/12 = 0.5% = 0.005

n = number of months = 24 months

PV of the 1st option, $8,200 monthly for the next 2 year

$PV = \frac{8,200(1-(1.005)^{-24}) }{0.005}$ = $185,015.50.

PV of the 2ns option, $6,900 monthly + $37,000 signing bonus

$PV = \frac{6,900(1-(1.005)^{-24}) }{0.005}+37,000$ = $155,683.78 + $37,000 = $192,683.78.

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4 years ago