Answer:
f(-6) = -2
Step-by-step explanation:
plug in k value (-6)
f(-6) = -6/2 + 1
theres two ways to solve for this
one way:
convert the whole number 1 to an improper fraction
f(-6) = -6/2 + 2/2
combine like terms
f(-6) = -4/2
divide -4 by 2
f(-6) = -2
second way:
divide -6 by 2
f(-6) = -3 + 1
combine like terms
f(-6) = -2
either way you get the same answer
use whichever is easiest for you
you solve it by using your brain =) 132 degrees
If we are eliminating x, we would multiply the 2nd equation by -5
5x + 18y = 23
x + 3y = 2....multiply by -5
-----------------
5x + 18y = 23
-5x - 15y = - 10 (result of multiplying by -5)
----------------add
0 + 3y = 13.....bye-bye x :)
Answer:. This would be 0.81^20 for none of the 19=0.0148
Step-by-step explanation:With a tree diagram, there are two possibilities, one is ND from 1 D from 2, with probability (5/8)(2/5)=(1/4) and the other is (3/8)(3/5)=9/40 That would be 19/40 for the answer.
3. Poisson parameter lambda=5
for P(0), it is e^(-5)(5^0)/0! or e^(-5)=0.0067
for P(1), it is e^(-5)(5^1)/1! or 5e(-5)
The total probability is 6e^-5 or 0.0404
4. the mean is 1000 hours, so lambda is the reciprocal or 1/1000
the probability it will last <800 hours is 1-e^(-800*1/1000) or 1-e^(-.8)=0.5507
5. assume p=0.4 since it ca't be 4
sd is sqrt (np*(1-p))=sqrt (6*0.6=sqrt(3.6)=1.90
Answer:
The answer is below
Step-by-step explanation:
a) Given that the number of sample (n) = 300, therefore since n > 30, the distribution of the sample means is going to be normally distributed.
b) The mean of the distribution of sample means (also known as the Expected value of M) is equal to the population mean μ.
c) The standard deviation of the distribution of sample means is called the Standard Error of M, it is given by:
