If there are no repeating x values and an x value only goes to <em>one</em><em> </em>y value, then yes, it is a function.
Hi There!
<span>What is 32/48 in SIMPLEST form?
</span>32÷16=2
48÷16=3
<span>So the answer is </span><span>2/3</span>
Answer:
The value of the function f(x) at each point is f(-1) = 5, f(0) = 3, f(1) = 5, f(2) = 11, f(3) = 21 ⇒ A
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us use the mapping shown to solve the question
∵ f(x) = y
∵ x is the domain
∵ y is the range
→ From the figure use x from the domain and y from the range, where
each arrow pointed at the corresponding value y of x
∵ x = -1 and the corresponding value of y is 5
∴ f(-1) = 5
∵ x = 0 and the corresponding value of y is 3
∴ f(0) = 3
∵ x = 1 and the corresponding value of y is 5
∴ f(1) = 5
∵ x = 2 and the corresponding value of y is 11
∴ f(2) = 11
∵ x = 3 and the corresponding value of y is 21
∴ f(3) = 21
The value of the function f(x) at each point is f(-1) = 5, f(0) = 3, f(1) = 5, f(2) = 11, f(3) = 21
Answer:
0.84 or 84%
Step-by-step explanation:
Let 'n' be number of people who took the survey, the number of men who answered the survey is 0.45n. The number of men who answered the survey and have participated in online auctions is 0.38n. Therefore, choosing from the population of men who took the survey (0.45n) the probability that a respondent had participated in an online auction is:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
